A client who is 30 weeks pregnant comes into the labor and delivery unit complaining of having a gush of fluid come from her vagina. Which complication is this client at risk for?
- A. Infection
- B. Fluid volume deficit
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased urinary output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. When a pregnant client at 30 weeks experiences a gush of fluid from the vagina, it may indicate ruptured membranes leading to amniotic fluid leakage. This can lead to a decrease in amniotic fluid volume, potentially causing fluid volume deficit for both the mother and the fetus. This can result in complications such as preterm labor, infection, and fetal distress. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Infection is a potential risk due to the ruptured membranes, but the immediate concern is fluid volume deficit.
C: Hypotension is not directly related to the scenario described.
D: Decreased urinary output is not a typical immediate concern with ruptured membranes; rather, the focus should be on assessing for signs of fluid loss and ensuring hydration.
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During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect suggests pulmonary edema. This is due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to coughing. Pulmonary edema can occur due to increased blood volume and pressure on the heart during pregnancy, exacerbating the client's pre-existing heart condition. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing while lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not directly linked to a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) is unlikely in a pregnant client and would not explain the cough.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia. Which assessments will be of the highest priority?
- A. Assessing lung sounds
- B. Assessing blood sugar level
- C. Encouraging fluid intake
- D. Assessing for pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, necessitating close monitoring of lung sounds to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Assessing lung sounds is crucial for early detection and intervention. Blood sugar level (B) monitoring is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Encouraging fluid intake (C) may be important, but not as critical as assessing lung sounds. Assessing for pitting edema (D) is important for overall assessment but not the highest priority in this scenario.
Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.
A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
- B. Get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration.
- C. Administer medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized.
- D. Inform the client that this may cause a positive direct Coombs test result.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Getting baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitoring frequently during administration is crucial because hydralazine is a potent antihypertensive medication that can cause significant drops in blood pressure. Monitoring allows for early detection of hypotension or adverse reactions.
A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is not specific to the administration of hydralazine for pre-eclampsia.
C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized is not a standard protocol for hydralazine administration; it should be given as per physician's orders with appropriate monitoring.
D is incorrect because informing the client about a positive direct Coombs test result is not relevant to the administration of hydralazine; this is more pertinent to medications that can cause hemolytic anemia.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor who is HIV positive. Which nursing care should be included?
- A. Administering antiretroviral drugs as ordered
- B. Assisting the woman on a labor ball to help with natural descent of the fetus
- C. Handling the newborn with gloves until it receives its first bath
- D. Encouraging the mother to breastfeed soon after delivery
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because administering antiretroviral drugs as ordered helps reduce the risk of vertical transmission of HIV from mother to baby during childbirth. This treatment is essential in managing the client's HIV status and ensuring the safety of the newborn.
Choice B is incorrect because using a labor ball does not directly address the HIV status of the client or the transmission risk to the newborn.
Choice C is incorrect as wearing gloves when handling the newborn does not replace the need for antiretroviral therapy to prevent transmission.
Choice D is incorrect because breastfeeding can transmit HIV from mother to baby, so it is not recommended for HIV-positive mothers to breastfeed.