Nokea
A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.
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A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient's provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct
- A. dose.
- B. drug.
- C. frequency.
- D. route.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.
To evaluate the positive effect of furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day in a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), what is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Obtain daily weights of the client.
- B. Auscultate heart and breath sounds.
- C. Palpate the client's abdomen.
- D. Assess the client's diet history.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to manage fluid overload and hypertension in clients with CKD. Monitoring daily weights is crucial as weight changes reflect fluid status. Each kilogram of weight change approximately corresponds to 1 liter of fluid retention or loss, making it essential for evaluating the medication's effectiveness. Auscultating heart and breath sounds is more relevant for heart failure cases with fluid retention, not specifically for assessing the effect of furosemide in CKD. Palpating the abdomen is not a direct indicator of furosemide's effectiveness; instead, assessing for edema would be appropriate. While assessing the client's diet history is important to monitor electrolyte balance due to potassium loss with furosemide, it does not directly evaluate the medication's efficacy.
The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
- B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
- C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
- D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.
A patient is being treated for shock after a motor vehicle accident. The provider orders 6% dextran 75 to be given intravenously. The nurse should expect which outcome as the result of this infusion?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Improved blood oxygenation
- C. Increased interstitial fluid
- D. Stabilization of heart rate and blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 6% Dextran 75 is a high molecular-weight colloidal solution used to treat shock from burns or trauma. Colloids like 6% dextran 75 are plasma expanders that help increase blood volume, leading to improved heart rate and blood pressure stabilization. The infusion of plasma expanders does not typically decrease urine output. It primarily aims to stabilize circulation rather than affect blood oxygenation or increase interstitial fluid levels.