Nokea
A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
- C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer the option to view products of conception. This intervention allows the client to have closure and process the loss. It can also provide emotional support and facilitate the grieving process. Option A is not necessary unless the client is hypoxic. Option C is not relevant to the immediate management of an inevitable abortion. Option D may be advised for some clients, but it is not as crucial as offering emotional support and closure to the client in this situation.
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A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
- B. Obtain a daily weight.
- C. Continuous fetal monitoring
- D. Ambulate twice daily
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating a client with severe preeclampsia can be risky due to the potential for sudden worsening of symptoms and complications like seizures. It is important to prioritize rest and close monitoring in such cases. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every hour (A) is crucial as changes can indicate neurological involvement. Obtaining a daily weight (B) helps monitor fluid status. Continuous fetal monitoring (C) is necessary to assess the well-being of the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. In summary, ambulating the client with severe preeclampsia is the most concerning order as it may pose a significant risk to both the client and the fetus.
A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?
- A. Decreased vaginal discharge
- B. A surge of energy
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A surge of energy. This is a sign that precedes labor as the body may experience a burst of energy known as the "nesting instinct." This surge can occur as the body prepares for the upcoming physical demands of labor.
A: Decreased vaginal discharge is not a sign of impending labor; in fact, there may be an increase in vaginal discharge as the body prepares for childbirth.
C: Urinary retention is not a sign of impending labor and can be a symptom of other issues such as a urinary tract infection.
D: Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of labor approaching; weight fluctuations during pregnancy are common and can vary based on various factors.
A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, abruptio placentae. This condition is characterized by sudden onset of continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, common at 36 weeks gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Placenta previa (A) presents painless bleeding, prolapsed cord (B) involves cord presenting before the fetus, and incompetent cervix (C) leads to painless dilation of the cervix. Thus, abruptio placentae is the most likely complication in this scenario.
During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?
- A. Vertex
- B. Shoulder
- C. Breech
- D. Mentum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a Leopold maneuver, if the healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position, it means the fetal back is on the right side, and the small parts are on the left side, indicating a breech presentation. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Breech. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Vertex refers to the head-first position.
B: Shoulder presentation would involve feeling the shoulder first during the maneuver.
D: Mentum presentation would involve feeling the chin first, which is not the case in an RSA position.
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
- A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
- B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
- C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
- D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the arms due to the pressure build-up before the narrowing and decreased blood pressure in the legs due to reduced blood flow beyond the narrowing. This pressure difference is a classic clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta. B is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in the arms is not typical. C is incorrect as increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs does not reflect the characteristic pressure difference caused by the aortic narrowing. D is incorrect as decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not consistent with the presentation of coarctation of the aorta.