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A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Hold the medication and refrain from administering additional amounts of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms before the next administration of the drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness in a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder may indicate lithium toxicity. The nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider to ensure immediate medical intervention. The correct action is to prepare for the administration of an antidote if necessary. Holding the medication (Choice B) could delay necessary treatment. Considering the symptoms as normal side effects (Choice C) is incorrect as they suggest a potential serious issue. Notifying the healthcare provider before the next administration of the drug (Choice D) may delay urgent intervention required for lithium toxicity.
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A male client comes to the emergency center with an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
- A. Have you taken any medication for erectile dysfunction?
- B. Are you experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems?
- C. When was the last time you consumed an alcoholic beverage?
- D. Do you have a history of angina or high blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether he is experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems. This inquiry is crucial as it can help in determining if the persistent erection is a side effect of trazodone. Asking about medication for erectile dysfunction (Choice A) may not provide relevant information in this case, as the focus is on the potential side effects of trazodone. Inquiring about the last time the client consumed alcohol (Choice C) is not directly related to the situation at hand. Questioning about a history of angina or high blood pressure (Choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concern of the persistent erection potentially caused by trazodone.
The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about starting a prescribed abstinence therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client understand?
- A. Maintain complete abstinence from heroin or cocaine use.
- B. Stay alcohol-free for at least 12 hours before the first dose.
- C. Participate in monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
- D. Disclose to others that he is a substance abuser.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Before starting disulfiram therapy (Antabuse), the client must comprehend the need to remain alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours. This is crucial to prevent the unpleasant and potentially dangerous reactions that can occur with concurrent alcohol consumption while on disulfiram. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific requirement for alcohol abstinence before initiating disulfiram therapy.
An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage high levels of physical activity.
- B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
- C. Engage the client in creative arts activities.
- D. Allow the client to make decisions about their schedule.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience heightened energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and racing thoughts. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial in managing these symptoms as it helps reduce external stimuli, prevent overstimulation, and promote a sense of calmness. Encouraging high levels of physical activity may exacerbate the manic symptoms by further increasing stimulation and excitement. Engaging the client in creative arts activities might be beneficial during stable periods but may not be the most appropriate intervention during a manic episode. Allowing the client to make decisions about their schedule could potentially lead to impulsivity and poor judgment, which are common characteristics of mania.
A client with alcohol use disorder is being treated in a rehabilitation facility. Which behavior indicates that the client is making progress in recovery?
- A. Attends all scheduled therapy sessions regularly.
- B. Is participating in group therapy and sharing experiences.
- C. Completes a work-study program.
- D. Has a decreased need for psychiatric medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Participation in group therapy and sharing experiences is a positive sign of progress in recovery for a client with alcohol use disorder. It fosters peer support, allows for personal insight, and encourages social interaction, which are essential aspects of the recovery process. Choice A, attending all scheduled therapy sessions regularly, is important but may not necessarily indicate the same level of progress as active participation in group therapy. Choice C, completing a work-study program, is not directly related to the client's recovery from alcohol use disorder. Choice D, having a decreased need for psychiatric medication, is not necessarily a reliable indicator of progress in recovery from alcohol use disorder, as medication management is a separate aspect of treatment.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
- D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.