Nokea
A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client's respiratory acidosis?
- A. Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination.
- B. Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate.
- C. Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly.
- D. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood are indicative of respiratory acidosis, often due to inadequate ventilation. In respiratory acidosis, there is retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) leading to an increase in carbonic acid levels in the blood, resulting in an acidic pH. Option A is incorrect because carbon dioxide elimination primarily occurs through the lungs, not the kidneys. Option B is incorrect because blood oxygen levels primarily affect the respiratory rate to regulate oxygen levels, not carbon dioxide levels. Option C is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Increased lung compliance.
- B. Decreased lung elasticity.
- C. Increased respiratory rate.
- D. Increased lung expansion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of normal saline and notices that the infusion is not flowing. The insertion site is not inflamed or swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the tubing for kinks or obstructions.
- B. Increase the flow rate to improve the infusion.
- C. Reinsert the IV catheter in another vein.
- D. Call the physician for further instructions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when an IV infusion is not flowing despite a normal insertion site is to check the tubing for kinks or obstructions. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no preventable issues impeding the flow of the IV solution. Increasing the flow rate without addressing potential obstructions could lead to complications such as infiltration. Reinserting the IV catheter in another vein should only be considered after ruling out tubing issues. Calling the physician for further instructions is not necessary at this stage as troubleshooting the tubing should be the initial intervention.
Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?
- A. Supine position.
- B. Fowler's position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Lateral recumbent position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.
The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?
- A. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope.
- B. Call the physician.
- C. Use a Doppler ultrasound device.
- D. Inspect the lower left extremity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.
An adult client who received partial thickness burns on 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit. Which fluid should the nurse prepare to administer during the client's burn recovery?
- A. 5% dextrose in water
- B. 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline
- C. Total parenteral nutrition
- D. Lactated Ringer's
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the burn recovery phase, the nurse should prepare to administer Lactated Ringer's solution. Lactated Ringer's is the preferred fluid choice for burn patients as it helps replace lost fluids and electrolytes, maintain perfusion, and support organ function. Option A, 5% dextrose in water, is not the appropriate choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Option B, 5% dextrose in 0.25 normal saline, does not provide the necessary electrolytes needed for burn recovery. Option C, Total parenteral nutrition, may be considered later in the treatment but is not the initial fluid of choice for burn recovery.