Nokea
A client who is pregnant states that her last menstrual period was April 1st. What is the client's estimated date of delivery?
- A. January 8
- B. January 15
- C. February 8
- D. February 15
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). In this case, April 1st + 280 days = January 8, which is the correct EDD. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not account for the 280-day gestation period from the LMP.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution. This is crucial as epidural anesthesia can cause hypotension, which can lead to maternal and fetal complications. Monitoring blood pressure every 5 minutes allows for early detection and intervention.
A: Positioning the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution can lead to hypotension due to decreased venous return, so this is incorrect.
B: Administering dextrose 5% in water is not a standard practice after epidural anesthesia and does not address the risk of hypotension, so this is incorrect.
D: Ensuring the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the procedure is important for general anesthesia but not specifically for epidural anesthesia, so this is incorrect.
During a vaginal exam on a client in labor who reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back, a nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. Which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention for the nurse to perform to relieve the client's discomfort?
- A. Back rub
- B. Counter-pressure
- C. Playing music
- D. Foot massage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer, B: Counter-pressure, is the best nonpharmacological intervention for a client with a posterior fetal head position causing lower back pain. Counter-pressure applied to the sacrum can help alleviate discomfort by reducing pressure on the lower back and providing support during contractions. This technique can aid in rotating the baby's head to a more optimal position for delivery.
Choice A: Back rub, may offer some comfort but may not specifically address the issue of lower back pain caused by the fetal position. Choice C: Playing music, and Choice D: Foot massage, are unlikely to provide direct relief for the client's specific discomfort related to the baby's posterior position.
A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?
- A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
- B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Perform a vaginal exam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assist the client into the left-lateral position. This is the first action because it helps improve placental perfusion, which can alleviate late decelerations associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. The left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta by reducing pressure on the vena cava and improving maternal perfusion. This position can potentially prevent further fetal distress.
Summary of other choices:
B: Applying a fetal scalp electrode is not the first action for addressing late decelerations. It may be considered later for more precise monitoring.
C: Inserting an IV catheter is important but not the priority when late decelerations are observed.
D: Performing a vaginal exam is not indicated as the first action for addressing late decelerations and could potentially increase the risk of infection.
When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
- A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
- B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
- C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
- D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because counting the fetal heart rate after a contraction helps determine baseline changes, which is essential for identifying fetal distress. This method allows for accurate assessment of fetal well-being in response to contractions. Choice A is incorrect as 15 seconds is not enough time to establish a baseline. Choice B is incorrect as auscultating every 5 minutes may not provide timely information during the active phase. Choice D is incorrect because auscultating every 30 minutes in the second stage may miss important changes in fetal status. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for intermittent fetal heart monitoring.
A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?
- A. Singleton pregnancy
- B. BMI of 20
- C. Maternal age of 32 years
- D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pregestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy. Pregestational diabetes is a known risk factor for developing preeclampsia due to the underlying vascular and inflammatory changes associated with diabetes. In contrast, choices A, B, and C are not typically considered risk factors for preeclampsia. A singleton pregnancy (choice A) is a normal occurrence and not a risk factor for preeclampsia. A BMI of 20 (choice B) falls within the healthy weight range and is not a known risk factor for preeclampsia. Maternal age of 32 years (choice C) is also not considered a significant risk factor for preeclampsia in the absence of other factors.