A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
- A. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Azathioprine (Imuran)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.
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Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?
- A. Numb hands
- B. Gastrointestinal distress
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Nightmares
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?
- A. massive ascites formation
- B. fluid volume excess
- C. increased serum ammonia levels
- D. altered clotting mechanism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.
Mr. Umali, 52-year-old male is being evaluated for acute ulcerative colitis. im preparing Mr. Umali for a barium enema, the nurse can expect that he will be:
- A. contraindicated with cathartics
- B. given an oil retention enema the morning of the study
- C. instructed to swallow six radiopaque tablets the evening before the study
- D. positioned in ahigh fowler’s position immediately following the procedure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cathartics can exacerbate ulcerative colitis symptoms by increasing bowel motility and causing further inflammation. Giving an oil retention enema (choice B) is not necessary for a barium enema. Ingesting radiopaque tablets (choice C) is not typically part of the preparation for a barium enema. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice D) is not a specific requirement following the procedure. Overall, avoiding cathartics is crucial in patients with acute ulcerative colitis to prevent worsening of symptoms during the barium enema.
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
- A. A decrease in postoperative stress causing poiyuria
- B. The onset of diabetes mellitus, an unusual complication
- C. An expected result of the removal of the pituitary gland
- D. A frequent complication of the hypophysectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.
When performing a neurological examination on Mr. RR, which of the following would not be considered an important or useful part of the examination?
- A. Eye movements
- B. Reflexes
- C. Nuchal rigidity
- D. Pupil size NEUROLOGIC MEDICATIONS
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pupil size is not typically a part of a routine neurological examination. A: Eye movements are assessed to evaluate cranial nerve functions. B: Reflexes help determine the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system. C: Nuchal rigidity is important to assess for signs of meningitis or other neurological conditions. In contrast, pupil size is more relevant in ophthalmological examinations or when assessing response to specific medications affecting the pupil size.