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A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
- A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
- B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
- C. Check for signs of infection.
- D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.
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The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
- B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
- C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
- D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.
The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Spider angiomas.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spider angiomas are abnormal clusters of blood vessels near the skin surface and can be indicative of an underlying liver condition. In the context of liver cirrhosis, spider angiomas can suggest portal hypertension and liver dysfunction, which requires immediate intervention. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of liver cirrhosis but not typically an immediate intervention priority unless severe. Ascites (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are also common in liver cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless they are causing respiratory compromise or other urgent issues.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
- D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.
The nurse must delegate some aspects of a homebound client's care to a home health aide. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to the home health aide?
- A. evaluating a pressure sore
- B. applying a prosthetic device
- C. performing a sterile dressing change
- D. assessing the client's need for an elevated toilet seat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: applying a prosthetic device. Home health aides are trained and authorized to assist with the application and management of prosthetic devices for clients. Evaluating a pressure sore (choice A) requires clinical assessment and judgment typically performed by a licensed healthcare provider such as a nurse. Performing a sterile dressing change (choice C) involves aseptic technique and wound care skills that are usually performed by licensed healthcare professionals. Assessing the client's need for an elevated toilet seat (choice D) involves a level of assessment and decision-making that is beyond the scope of practice for a home health aide.