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A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?
- A. Not sleeping for several days.
- B. Wishing to be with the deceased significant other.
- C. Lack of interest in usual activities.
- D. Eating very little.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important client statement for the RN to explore in this scenario is the client not sleeping for several days. The lack of sleep is a critical indicator of possible severe depression or suicidal ideation that requires immediate attention. While expressing a wish to be with the deceased significant other, having a lack of interest in usual activities, and eating very little are concerning, the immediate focus should be on the client's severe sleep disturbance as it can pose an immediate risk to their well-being and safety.
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What action is most important for the RN to implement within the first 24 hours after treatment is initiated for a homeless client who reports feeling sad and depressed and has only had 4 hours of sleep in the past 2 days?
- A. Allow the client to rest and sleep.
- B. Ensure the client attends groups addressing coping skills for dealing with depression.
- C. Begin planning for the client's discharge.
- D. Encourage verbalization of feelings.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: Addressing the client's immediate need for rest and sleep is crucial for stabilization and recovery. It is essential to prioritize the client's physical well-being and provide the opportunity for adequate rest. B: Group therapy and coping skills are important but secondary to ensuring immediate needs are met. C: Discharge planning is important but should follow stabilization of the client's immediate needs. D: Encouraging verbalization of feelings is supportive but not as urgent as addressing basic needs like rest.
A female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages.
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy.
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client's verbal messages.
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse observes a discrepancy between a client's verbal and nonverbal communication, it is essential to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages. Nonverbal cues, such as body language and facial expressions, can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state, feelings, and concerns that may not be expressed verbally. By documenting these nonverbal messages, the nurse can gain a more comprehensive understanding of the client's communication and address any potential underlying issues. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not always provide an accurate understanding of the client's nonverbal cues. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior (Choice C) could lead to missing important cues affecting the client's care. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is important, but initially focusing on documenting and understanding the nonverbal cues can enhance the nurse's assessment and communication with the client.
A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?
- A. Blood pressure readings of 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg.
- B. Pulse rate of 68-78 BPM.
- C. Temperature of 99.5-99.7°F.
- D. Respiration rate of 24 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
- D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.
Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.