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A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees.
- B. Sit only in low chairs for comfort.
- C. Bend at the waist to pick up objects.
- D. Sleep on the affected side to prevent discomfort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid crossing your legs at the knees. Crossing legs increases risk of dislocation post hip replacement. It maintains proper alignment and reduces strain on the hip joint. Sitting in low chairs (B) can strain the hip. Bending at the waist (C) can strain the hip joint. Sleeping on the affected side (D) can lead to discomfort and pressure on the hip joint.
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An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection.
C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?
- A. Weigh the child daily.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for pitting edema.
- C. Measure the child's abdominal girth weekly.
- D. Weigh the child's wet diapers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weigh the child daily. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to determine fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome as it provides real-time data on fluid status. Weight gain is a key indicator of fluid retention in these patients. Observing lower extremities for pitting edema (B) is subjective and may not accurately reflect fluid status. Measuring abdominal girth weekly (C) may not provide timely information on fluid retention. Weighing wet diapers (D) does not give a comprehensive picture of total fluid retention and may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring.
A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
- A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
- B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
- C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
- D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Rationale:
1. Sugar and caffeine intake can exacerbate anxiety and interfere with sleep due to their stimulant effects.
2. Limiting these substances can help regulate the body's energy levels and reduce anxiety symptoms.
3. By teaching the client to limit sugar and caffeine intake, the nurse is addressing the root causes of the client's sleeplessness and anxiety.
Summary:
A: Encouraging daily rituals may provide structure but does not directly address the physiological effects of sugar and caffeine on anxiety.
B: Reinforcing the reality of the financial situation may increase anxiety rather than alleviate it.
C: Drinking red wine at bedtime is not a recommended solution for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.
In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
- B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
- C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F.
- D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten. This is crucial because the Braden scale assesses the client's risk for developing pressure ulcers. A score of ten indicates a very high risk, requiring frequent repositioning to prevent pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities indicates fluid overload, not directly related to turning schedule planning.
Choice C is incorrect because warm, dry skin with a fever of 100‚° F suggests a possible infection, but does not affect the need for turning schedule planning.
Choice D is incorrect as hypoactive bowel sounds and infrequent bowel movements are related to gastrointestinal function, not directly impacting the turning schedule.
Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the OB nurse's background in obstetrics makes them most suitable to care for a post-operative patient with an IV. This assignment aligns with the nurse's skill set and ensures safe and competent care. Choices B, C, and D involve medical-surgical conditions that may require specialized knowledge and skills beyond the OB nurse's expertise, potentially compromising patient care. Assigning the OB nurse to care for a post-operative patient with an IV is the most appropriate choice given the circumstances.