Nokea
A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?
- A. Maintain the client in the lithotomy position.
- B. Perform vaginal examinations frequently.
- C. Remind the client to bear down with each contraction.
- D. Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours. This is important to prevent bladder distention, which can impede fetal descent and progression of labor. A: Maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is unnecessary and may be uncomfortable. B: Performing frequent vaginal examinations increases the risk of infection and should be minimized. C: Reminding the client to bear down with each contraction is not appropriate during the active phase of the first stage of labor as it can lead to exhaustion and prolonged labor.
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During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?
- A. Sternal notch
- B. Nipple line
- C. Xiphoid process
- D. Fifth intercostal space
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nipple line. This landmark is used for measuring newborn chest circumference as it ensures consistency in measurement and is a reliable reference point. The nipple line is anatomically consistent and easily identifiable, making it the ideal landmark for accurate measurements.
Rationale:
A: Sternal notch is not recommended for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not a consistent landmark and may vary among individuals.
C: Xiphoid process is not suitable for chest circumference measurement as it is located at the lower end of the sternum and not commonly used for this purpose.
D: Fifth intercostal space is not a recommended landmark for chest circumference measurement in newborns as it is not as reliable and consistent as the nipple line.
A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
- A. Increase in blood pressure
- B. Fundus firm to palpation
- C. Increase in lochia
- D. Report of absent breast pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fundus firm to palpation. Methylergonovine is a medication used to promote uterine contraction, which helps the uterus return to its pre-pregnancy size and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. When the fundus is firm to palpation, it indicates that the uterus is contracting effectively, which is the desired outcome of giving methylergonovine.
A: Increase in blood pressure is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness in this context.
C: Increase in lochia may be a sign of uterine involution but does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of methylergonovine.
D: Reporting of absent breast pain is not a specific indicator of the medication's effectiveness related to uterine contraction.
A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
- A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
- B. Every morning before arising
- C. 1 hour following intercourse
- D. Before going to bed every night
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every morning before arising. This is because basal body temperature is the lowest body temperature attained during rest, typically just before waking up. Checking the temperature at this time provides the most accurate measurement of basal temperature. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because ovulation typically occurs around 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, not on days 13 to 17 specifically (A), 1 hour following intercourse is not a reliable indicator of ovulation (C), and basal temperature should be checked in the morning, not before going to bed at night (D).
A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
- A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
- B. Biophysical profile score of 8
- C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
- D. Reactive nonstress test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1. This ratio indicates fetal lung maturity as it signifies adequate production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, essential for proper lung function after birth. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) (Choice A) indicates immaturity, Biophysical profile score of 8 (Choice B) assesses overall fetal well-being, not lung maturity, and Reactive nonstress test (Choice D) evaluates fetal well-being, not lung maturity. The L/S ratio of 2:1 is the most reliable indicator of fetal lung maturity.
A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless red vaginal bleeding. This finding supports the diagnosis of placenta previa due to the characteristic symptom of painless bleeding in the third trimester. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to dilate. The other choices are incorrect because increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus (B) may indicate placental abruption, abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding (C) is not typical of placenta previa, and intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus (D) is more suggestive of preterm labor or bloody show.