Nokea
A client who underwent peripheral arterial bypass surgery 16 hours ago reports that there is increasing pain in the leg that worsens with movement and is accompanied by paresthesias. Based on these data, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Call the primary health care provider.
- B. Administer an opioid analgesic.
- C. Apply warm moist heat for comfort.
- D. Apply ice to minimize any developing swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment caused by bleeding or excessive edema. It compresses the nerves in the area and can cause vascular compromise. The classic signs of compartment syndrome are pain at rest that intensifies with movement and the development of paresthesias. Compartment syndrome is an emergency, and the primary health care provider is notified immediately because the client could require an emergency fasciotomy to relieve the pressure and restore perfusion.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which medication instructions should the nurse provide to a client who has been prescribed levothyroxine? Select all that apply.
- A. Monitor your own pulse rate.
- B. Take the medication in the morning.
- C. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- D. Notify the primary health care provider if chest pain occurs.
- E. Expect the pulse rate to be greater than 100 beats per minute.
- F. It may take 1 to 3 weeks for a full therapeutic effect to occur.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,F
Rationale: Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone. The client is instructed to monitor her or his own pulse rate. The client is also instructed to take the medication in the morning before breakfast to prevent insomnia and to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain hormone levels. The client is told not to discontinue the medication and that thyroid replacement is lifelong. Additional instructions include contacting the primary health care provider if the rate is greater than 100 beats per minute and notifying the primary health care provider if chest pain occurs, or if weight loss, nervousness and tremors, or insomnia develops. The client is also told that full therapeutic effect may take 1 to 3 weeks and that he or she needs to have follow-up thyroid blood studies to monitor therapy.
A client prescribed lithium carbonate for the treatment of bipolar disorder has a medication blood level of 1.6 mEq/L (1.6 mmol/L). Which assessment question should the nurse ask to determine whether the client is experiencing signs of lithium toxicity associated with this level?
- A. Do you hear ringing in your ears?
- B. Have you noted that your vision is blurred?
- C. Have you fallen recently because you are dizzy?
- D. Have you been experiencing any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Normal lithium levels are between 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L (0.8 to 1.2 mmol/L). One of the most common early signs of lower level lithium toxicity is gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The assessment questions in options 1, 2, and 3 are related to the findings in lithium toxicity at higher levels.
The nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a thoracic spinal cord injury. In the event that spinal shock occurs, which intravenous (IV) fluid should the nurse anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Dextran
- B. 0.9% normal saline
- C. 5% dextrose in water
- D. 5% dextrose in 0.9% normal saline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal saline 0.9% is an isotonic solution that primarily remains in the intravascular space, increasing intravascular volume. This IV fluid would increase the client's blood pressure. Dextran is rarely used in spinal shock because isotonic fluid administration is usually sufficient. Additionally, Dextran has potential adverse effects. Dextrose 5% in water is a hypotonic solution that pulls fluid out of the intravascular space and is not indicated for shock. Dextrose 5% in normal saline 0.9% is hypertonic and may be indicated for shock resulting from hemorrhage or burns.
A client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is at 36 weeks' gestation. The client has had weekly reactive nonstress tests for the last 3 weeks. This week, the nonstress test was nonreactive after 40 minutes. Based on these results, the nurse should prepare the client for which intervention?
- A. A contraction stress test
- B. Immediate induction of labor
- C. Hospitalization with continuous fetal monitoring
- D. A return appointment in 2 days to repeat the nonstress test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonreactive nonstress test after 40 minutes indicates that the fetus did not show the expected heart rate accelerations, which may suggest fetal compromise, particularly in a high-risk pregnancy such as one with diabetes mellitus. The next step is typically a contraction stress test to further assess fetal well-being by evaluating the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions. Immediate induction or hospitalization may be premature without further evaluation, and repeating the nonstress test in 2 days delays necessary assessment.
Which nursing assessment question should be asked to help determine the client's risk for developing malignant hyperthermia in the perioperative period?
- A. Have you ever had heat exhaustion or heat stroke?
- B. What is the normal range for your body temperature?
- C. Do you or any of your family members have frequent infections?
- D. Do you or any of your family members have problems with general anesthesia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic disorder in which a combination of anesthetic agents (the muscle relaxant succinylcholine and inhalation agents such as halothanes) triggers uncontrolled skeletal muscle contractions that can quickly lead to a potentially fatal hyperthermia. Questioning the client about the family history of general anesthesia problems may reveal this as a risk for the client. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to this surgical complication.