Nokea
A client who was diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client’s blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level?
- A. Cool, moist skin
- B. Arm and leg trembling
- C. Rapid, thready pulse
- D. Slow, shallow respirations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Arm and leg trembling. With a blood glucose level of 470 mg/dl in a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the most likely finding is arm and leg trembling, which is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. This occurs due to the body's response to low blood sugar levels, causing tremors as a compensatory mechanism to increase glucose utilization. The other choices are incorrect because cool, moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, rapid thready pulse is a sign of shock or hypovolemia, and slow shallow respirations are not typically associated with high blood glucose levels in this scenario.
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What is the primary purpose of validation as a part of assessment?
- A. To identify data to be validated
- B. To establish an effective nurse–client communication
- C. To maintain effective relationships with coworkers
- D. To plan appropriate nursing care
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of validation in assessment is to ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable to plan appropriate nursing care. Validation helps confirm the accuracy of data, identify inconsistencies, and ensure that the information gathered is trustworthy. By verifying the data, nurses can make informed decisions and tailor individualized care plans to meet the patient's needs effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the purpose of validation in assessment. Choice A focuses on the identification of data, not the purpose of validation. Choice B and C pertain to communication and relationships, which are important but not the primary purpose of validation in the assessment process.
The client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium level of 140 mEq/l.
- B. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- D. Platelet count of 400,000/mm3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dl. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver damage, causing an increase in bilirubin levels. Direct bilirubin specifically indicates liver function. A: Sodium level is not related to acetaminophen toxicity. C: Prothrombin time is a measure of blood clotting, not indicative of acetaminophen toxicity. D: Platelet count is not affected by acetaminophen toxicity.
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
- A. Subjective data
- B. Objective data
- C. Secondary data
- D. Primary data
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data.
Summary:
- A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse.
- C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client.
- D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
The nurse would expect which of the following would be included in the plan of care/
- A. Have the client drink at least 8 glases of water in the first day
- B. Administer NaHCO3 IV as per physician’s orders
- C. Continue sodium bicarbonate for nausea
- D. Monitor electrolytes for hypokalemia and hypocalcemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Monitoring electrolytes is essential to assess for potential imbalances due to the use of sodium bicarbonate, which can lead to hypokalemia and hypocalcemia.
Step 2: Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
Step 3: By monitoring electrolytes, the nurse can detect imbalances early and intervene promptly to prevent adverse effects.
Summary:
A: Drinking excessive water can lead to electrolyte imbalances and is not directly related to the use of sodium bicarbonate.
B: Administering NaHCO3 IV is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should be done based on physician's orders.
C: Continuing sodium bicarbonate for nausea may not be appropriate without monitoring electrolytes to prevent potential imbalances.
Nursing care for a patient who is experiencing a convulsive seizure includes all of the following except:
- A. Loosening constrictive clothing
- B. Opening the patient’s jaw and inserting a mouth gag
- C. Positioning the patient on his or her side with head flexed forward
- D. Providing for privacy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because inserting a mouth gag during a convulsive seizure can obstruct the airway and pose a choking hazard. Step-by-step rationale: A: Loosening clothing helps improve ventilation. C: Positioning on the side with head flexed forward prevents aspiration. D: Providing privacy is important for patient dignity and confidentiality. B is incorrect as it can be harmful.