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A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
- A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
- B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
- C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
- D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
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A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record.
- B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
- C. Compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
- D. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.
Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere's disease?
- A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
- B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
- C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
- D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere's disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere's disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.
The mother of a child who has been diagnosed with varicella asks the nurse when the child can return to school. When is the child no longer contagious?
- A. When the fever dissipates
- B. After the incubation period
- C. When the lesions have healed
- D. When the lesions are crusted over
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'When the lesions are crusted over.' Varicella is no longer contagious once the lesions are dry and crusted. This stage indicates that the active viral shedding has significantly decreased, reducing the risk of transmission. Choice A, 'When the fever dissipates,' is incorrect because the presence of fever does not necessarily correlate with the contagiousness of varicella. Choice B, 'After the incubation period,' is incorrect as the incubation period occurs before the onset of symptoms and is not relevant to determining contagiousness. Choice C, 'When the lesions have healed,' is incorrect as healed lesions can still be contagious if they are not crusted over.
A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.