Nokea
A client with a C3 spinal cord injury has a headache and nausea. The client’s blood pressure is 170/100 mm Hg. How should the nurse respond initially?
- A. Administer PRN analgesic medication
- B. Administer PRN antihypertensive medication
- C. Lower the head of the bed
- D. Palpate the client’s bladder
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Headache, nausea, and hypertension in a C3 injury suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distension. Palpating the bladder identifies and addresses the cause. Medications and bed positioning are secondary.
You may also like to solve these questions
The school nurse is called to the playground for an episode of mouth trauma. The nurse finds that the front tooth of a 9 year-old child has been avulsed ('knocked out'). After recovering the tooth, the initial response should be to
- A. Rinse the tooth in water before placing it in the socket
- B. Place the tooth in a clean plastic bag for transport to the dentist
- C. Hold the tooth by the roots until reaching the emergency room
- D. Ask the child to replace the tooth even if the bleeding continues
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rinse the tooth in water before placing it in the socket. Following avulsion of a permanent tooth, it is important to rinse the dirty tooth in water, saline solution or milk before re-implantation. If possible, replace the tooth in its socket within 30 minutes, avoiding contact with the root.
A client with suspected foot osteomyelitis is scheduled for an MRI. Which client findings should the nurse report before the test? Select all that apply.
- A. Cardiac pacemaker
- B. Colostomy
- C. Retained metal foreign body in eye
- D. Total hip replacement
- E. Transdermal testosterone patch
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Pacemakers, metal in the eye, and hip replacements pose MRI risks due to magnetic interference or heating. Colostomies and transdermal patches are not contraindicated for MRI.
A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client is receiving secondary prevention. The current focus of health care is on preventive care. Leavell and Clark (1965) described the three levels of preventive care as primary, secondary, and tertiary. Secondary preventive care focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems.
The nurse enters a client’s room just as the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is completing a bath and placing thigh-high anti-embolism stockings on the client. Which situation would cause the nurse to intervene?
- A. UAP applies the anti-embolism stockings while maintaining the client in supine position
- B. UAP carefully smoothes out any wrinkles over the length of the stockings
- C. UAP checks that the toe opening of the stockings is located on the plantar side of the foot
- D. UAP rolls down and folds over the excess material at the top of the stockings
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rolling and folding the stockings creates pressure points, risking skin breakdown and poor circulation. Supine application and correct toe opening placement are appropriate.
The nurse recognizes which of the following factors as possibly contributing to a sentinel event?
- A. Administered warfarin to a client with an INR of 6.0
- B. Administered flumazenil to a client who overdosed on lorazepam
- C. Initiated nitroprusside infusion in a client with blood pressure of 210/112 mm Hg
- D. Administered insulin/dextrose to a client with potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L (7.2 mmol/L)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering warfarin with an INR of 6.0 (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0) risks severe bleeding, a sentinel event. Flumazenil is appropriate for lorazepam overdose, nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis, and insulin/dextrose for hyperkalemia are correct interventions.