Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client who has histrionic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Suspicious of others
- B. Callousness
- C. Self-centered behavior
- D. Violates other's rights
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Self-centered behavior. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder typically exhibit attention-seeking, dramatic, and overly emotional behaviors. They often crave approval and validation from others, focusing on themselves and their own needs. This behavior aligns with the core characteristics of histrionic personality disorder.
Choice A (Suspicious of others) is incorrect as suspicion is not a defining trait of histrionic personality disorder. Choice B (Callousness) is inconsistent as histrionic individuals tend to be overly emotional rather than callous. Choice D (Violates other's rights) is not a common feature of histrionic personality disorder.
In summary, the nurse should expect self-centered behavior in a client with histrionic personality disorder, as they typically display attention-seeking and dramatic behaviors, seeking validation and approval from others.
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A nurse is teaching a client who is trying to conceive. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to increase in her diet to prevent a neural tube defect?
- A. Calcium
- B. Folate
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Folate. Folate is essential for preventing neural tube defects in newborns. It helps in the formation of the neural tube during early pregnancy. Calcium (A) is important for bone health but not specifically for preventing neural tube defects. Iron (C) is crucial for preventing anemia but not directly related to neural tube defects. Zinc (D) is important for immune function and wound healing but not specifically for neural tube defects.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The nurse understands that the patient has likely developed-----and will need to be monitored for-------
- A. Lithium toxicity
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. nephrotoxicity
- E. metabolic alkalosis
- F. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: The correct answer is A and D. Lithium toxicity and nephrotoxicity are commonly associated with the use of lithium. The nurse needs to monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity, such as tremors, confusion, and increased thirst, as well as signs of nephrotoxicity, like decreased urine output and electrolyte imbalances. Hyponatremia (B), cardiac dysrhythmias (C), metabolic alkalosis (E), and hypertension (F) are not directly related to lithium use. Monitoring for these conditions would not be the priority in a patient who has likely developed lithium toxicity and nephrotoxicity.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Bleeding gums
- B. Faintness upon rising
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Swelling of the face
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Swelling of the face. At 14 weeks of gestation, facial swelling could indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and management to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Bleeding gums are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased blood flow to the gums.
B: Faintness upon rising may be due to postural hypotension, common in pregnancy.
C: Urinary frequency is a common complaint in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus.
A nurse is teaching a client about advance directive. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. A living will is a document that includes my wishes about health care decisions.'
- B. My provider will make my health care decisions if I complete advance directives.'
- C. Advance directives outline who inherits my material possessions in the event of my death.'
- D. My partner needs to be present as a witness when I sign a living will.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately defines a living will as a document stating the client's healthcare wishes. This shows understanding of an advance directive's purpose. Option B is incorrect because advance directives empower the client, not the provider, to make healthcare decisions. Option C is incorrect as advance directives focus on healthcare, not material possessions. Option D is incorrect as witnesses don't need to be partners, just competent adults.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Shuffling gait
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shuffling gait. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to cause extrapyramidal side effects like shuffling gait, which can indicate a serious movement disorder called tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly to the provider is crucial for early intervention. Weight gain (A) and dry mouth (B) are common side effects of many medications, including haloperidol, but they are not considered urgent to report. Sedation (D) is a common side effect of haloperidol, but it is not typically a sign of a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate attention.