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A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
- A. Check blood pressure
- B. Assess heart rate
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Measure oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the heart rate before administering digoxin. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, making it crucial to evaluate the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Checking blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as critical as assessing the heart rate in this context. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) and measuring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are not the most crucial assessments before administering digoxin, as the primary concern with this medication is its impact on heart rate.
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A client with a leg fracture reports increased pain and swelling. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Compartment syndrome
- B. Deep vein thrombosis
- C. Wound infection
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Increased pain and swelling in a fracture could indicate compartment syndrome, a serious condition requiring urgent care. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to compromised blood flow and potential tissue damage. Deep vein thrombosis is less likely in this scenario as the symptoms are more indicative of compartment syndrome. Wound infection would typically present with localized signs of infection at the wound site, such as redness, warmth, and purulent drainage, rather than diffuse pain and swelling.
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
The nurse is teaching a client about the administration of a subcutaneous injection. Which site is most appropriate for this type of injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Dorsogluteal muscle
- C. Ventrogluteal muscle
- D. Abdomen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to its accessibility and ample subcutaneous tissue. Subcutaneous injections are typically given in areas with a layer of fat between the skin and muscle, such as the abdomen, to allow for slow and consistent absorption of the medication. The deltoid muscle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous. The dorsogluteal muscle and ventrogluteal muscle are also more suited for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous.
The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.