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A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease has an indwelling peritoneal catheter in the abdomen for peritoneal dialysis. While bathing, the client spills water on the abdominal dressing. Which action should the nurse perform to best assure client safety?
- A. Change the dressing.
- B. Reinforce the dressing.
- C. Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter.
- D. Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A dressing that is wet is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.
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The nurse is developing an educational session on client advocacy for the nursing staff. The nurse should include which interventions as examples of the nurse acting as a client advocate? Select all that apply.
- A. Obtaining an informed consent for a surgical procedure
- B. Providing information necessary for a client to make informed decisions
- C. Providing assistance in asserting the client's human and legal rights if the need arises
- D. Including the client's religious or cultural beliefs when assisting the client in making an informed decision
- E. Defending the client's rights by speaking out against policies or actions that might endanger the client's well-being
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: In the role of client advocate, the nurse protects the client's human and legal rights and provides assistance in asserting those rights if the need arises. The nurse advocates for the client by providing information needed so that the client can make an informed decision. The nurse needs to consider the client's religion and culture when functioning as an advocate and when providing care. The nurse would include the client's religious or cultural beliefs in discussions about treatment plans so that an informed decision can be made. The nurse also defends clients' rights in a general by speaking out against policies or actions that might endanger the client's well-being or conflict with his or her rights. Informed consent is part of the primary health care provider-client relationship; in most situations, obtaining the client's informed consent does not fall within the nursing duty. Even though the nurse assumes the responsibility for witnessing the client's signature on the consent form, the nurse does not legally assume the duty of obtaining informed consent.
At the scene of a train crash, the nurse triages the victims. Which clients should be coded for triage as most urgent or the first priority? Select all that apply.
- A. Is dead
- B. Has chest pain
- C. Has a leg sprain
- D. Has a chest wound
- E. Has multiple fractures
- F. Has full-thickness burns over 30% of the body
Correct Answer: B,D,F
Rationale: In a disaster situation, saving the greatest number of lives is the most important goal. During a disaster the nurse would triage the victims to maximize the number of survivors and sort the treatable from the untreatable victims. First priority victims (most urgent and coded red) have life-threatening injuries and are experiencing hypoxia or near hypoxia. Examples of injuries in this category are shock, chest wounds, internal hemorrhage, head injuries producing loss of consciousness, partial- or full-thickness burns over 20% of the body surface, and chest pain. Second priority victims (urgent and coded yellow) have injuries with systemic effects but are not yet hypoxic or in shock and can withstand a 2-hour wait without immediate risk (e.g., a victim with multiple fractures). Third priority victims (coded green) have minimal injuries unaccompanied by systemic complications and can wait for more than 2 hours for treatment (leg sprain). Dying or dead victims have catastrophic injuries, and the dying victims would not survive under the best of circumstances (coded black).
Which statements describe characteristics of case management? Select all that apply.
- A. A case manager usually does not provide direct care.
- B. Critical pathways and CareMaps are types of case management.
- C. A case manager does not need to be concerned with standards of cost management.
- D. A case manager collaborates with and supervises the care delivered by other staff members.
- E. The evaluation process involves continuous monitoring and analysis of the needs of the client and services provided.
- F. A case manager coordinates a hospitalized client's acute care and follows up with the client after discharge to home.
Correct Answer: A,D,E,F
Rationale: Case management is a care management approach that coordinates health care services to clients and their families while maintaining quality of care and minimizing health care costs. Case managers usually do not provide direct care; instead, they collaborate with and supervise the care delivered by other staff members and actively coordinate client discharge planning. A case manager is usually held accountable for some standard of cost management. A case manager coordinates a hospitalized client's acute care, follows up with the client after discharge to home, and is responsible and accountable for appraising the overall usefulness and effectiveness of the case-managed services. This evaluation process involves continuous monitoring and analysis of the client's needs and services provided. Critical pathways or CareMaps are not types of case management; rather, they are multidisciplinary treatment plans used in a case management delivery system to implement timely interventions in a coordinated care plan.
A client with a diagnosis of an acute respiratory infection and sinus tachycardia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse should develop a plan of care for the client and include which intervention?
- A. Limiting oral and intravenous fluids
- B. Measuring the client's pulse once each shift
- C. Providing the client with short, frequent walks
- D. Eliminating sources of caffeine from meal trays
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sinus tachycardia is an elevated heart rate that can be exacerbated by stimulants such as caffeine. Eliminating sources of caffeine from meal trays helps manage the client's heart rate, which is critical in the context of an acute respiratory infection where cardiac demand may already be increased. Limiting fluids is not indicated unless specific fluid overload conditions are present, which is not mentioned. Measuring the pulse once per shift is insufficient for monitoring tachycardia, as more frequent assessments are needed. Short, frequent walks may be beneficial for respiratory function but do not directly address tachycardia management.
A delivery room nurse is preparing a client for a cesarean delivery. Which position will promote maximum uteroplacental perfusion during this surgery?
- A. Prone position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg's position
- D. Supine position with a wedged right hip
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vena cava and descending aorta compression by the pregnant uterus impedes blood return from the lower trunk and extremities, thereby decreasing cardiac return, cardiac output, and blood flow to the uterus and subsequently the fetus. The best position to prevent this would be side-lying with the uterus displaced off the abdominal vessels. Positioning for abdominal surgery necessitates a supine position, so a wedge placed under the right hip provides displacement of the uterus off of the vena cava. A semi-Fowler's or prone position is not practical for this type of abdominal surgery. Trendelenburg positioning places pressure from the pregnant uterus on the diaphragm and lungs, decreasing respiratory capacity and oxygenation.