Nokea
A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 644 mg/dL (36.8 mmol/L). The nurse interprets that this client is at risk of developing which type of acid-base imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetes mellitus can lead to metabolic acidosis. When the body does not have sufficient circulating insulin, the blood glucose level rises. At the same time, the cells of the body use all available glucose. The body then breaks down glycogen and fat for fuel. The by-products of fat metabolism are acidotic and can lead to the condition known as diabetic ketoacidosis. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is resuming a diet after a Billroth II procedure. To minimize complications associated with eating, which actions should the nurse teach the client? Select all that apply.
- A. Laying down after eating
- B. Eating a diet high in protein
- C. Drinking liquids with meals
- D. Eating six small meals per day
- E. Eating concentrated sweets only between meals
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: The client who has had a Billroth II procedure is at risk for dumping syndrome. The client should lie down after eating and avoid drinking liquids with meals to prevent this syndrome. The client should be placed on a dry diet that is high in protein, moderate in fat, and low in carbohydrates. Frequent small meals are encouraged, and the client should avoid concentrated sweets.
A client is diagnosed with cholecystitis. The nurse reviews the client's medical record, expecting to note documentation of which manifestations of this disorder? Select all that apply.
- A. Dyspepsia
- B. Dark stools
- C. Light-colored and clear urine
- D. Feelings of abdominal fullness
- E. Rebound tenderness in the abdomen
- F. Upper abdominal pain that radiates to the right shoulder
Correct Answer: A,D,E,F
Rationale: Cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder. Manifestations include dyspepsia; feelings of abdominal fullness; rebound tenderness (Blumberg's sign); upper abdominal pain or discomfort that can radiate to the right shoulder; pain triggered by a high-fat meal; clay-colored stools, dark urine, and possible steatorrhea; anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; eructation; flatulence; fever; and jaundice.
The nurse caring for a postpartum client should suspect that the client is experiencing endometritis if which is noted?
- A. Breast engorgement
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Lochia rubra on the second day postpartum
- D. Fever over 38°C (100.4°F), beginning 2 days postpartum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Endometritis is a common cause of postpartum infection. The presence of fever of 38°C (100.4°F) or more on 2 successive days of the first 10 postpartum days (not counting the first 24 hours after birth) is indicative of a postpartum infection. Breast engorgement is a normal response in the postpartum period and is not associated with endometritis. The white blood cell count of a postpartum woman is normally elevated; thus, this method of detecting infection is not of great value in the puerperium. Lochia rubra on the second day postpartum is a normal finding.
A client undergoes transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which solution should the nurse have available postoperatively for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI)?
- A. Sterile water
- B. Sterile normal saline
- C. Sterile Dakin's solution
- D. Sterile water with 5% dextrose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bladder irrigation is done after TURP using sterile normal saline, which is isotonic. Sterile water is not used because the solution could be absorbed systemically, precipitating hemolysis and possibly kidney failure. Dakin's solution contains hypochlorite and is used only for wound irrigation in selected circumstances. Solutions containing dextrose are not introduced into the bladder.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse auscultates the right lower lobe, expecting to note which type of breath sounds?
- A. Absent
- B. Vesicular
- C. Bronchial
- D. Bronchovesicular
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bronchial sounds are normally heard over the trachea. The client with pneumonia will have bronchial breath sounds over area(s) of consolidation because the consolidated tissue carries bronchial sounds to the peripheral lung fields. The client may also have crackles in the affected area resulting from fluid in the interstitium and alveoli. Absent breath sounds are not likely to occur unless a serious complication of the pneumonia occurs. Vesicular sounds are normally heard over the lesser bronchi, bronchioles, and lobes. Bronchovesicular sounds are normally heard over the main bronchi.