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A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.
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During an assessment, a healthcare professional observes significant tenting of the skin over an older adult client's forearm. What factor should the healthcare professional primarily consider as a cause for this finding?
- A. Thin, parchment-like skin
- B. Loss of adipose tissue
- C. Dehydration
- D. Diminished skin elasticity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dehydration is the primary factor to consider in this scenario. Dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor and tenting, where the skin does not return to its normal position when pinched. While thin, parchment-like skin, loss of adipose tissue, and diminished skin elasticity can contribute to skin changes, they are not the primary cause of the significant tenting observed.
A charge nurse is talking with a newly licensed nurse and is reviewing nursing interventions that do not require a provider's prescription. Which of the following interventions should the charge nurse include?
- A. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate as needed for pain
- B. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube to relieve gastric distention
- C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation
- D. Performing a daily bath after the evening meal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Showing a client how to use progressive muscle relaxation is an intervention that does not require a provider's prescription. This falls within the nurse's scope of practice and can be implemented to promote relaxation and reduce stress for the client. Choices A and B involve tasks that require a provider's prescription and specialized training. Writing a prescription for morphine sulfate and inserting an NG tube should only be done by authorized healthcare providers. Choice D, performing a daily bath, while within the nurse's scope, does not specifically address interventions that do not require a provider's prescription.
What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Verify tube placement every shift.
- D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?
- A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
- B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
- C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
- D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.