Nokea
A client with a diagnosis of hypothermia is being admitted to the hospital by a nurse. Which of the following signs does the nurse anticipate that this client will exhibit?
- A. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
- C. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and blood pressure due to reduced metabolic needs of the body. With lower metabolic demands, the heart's workload decreases, leading to reductions in both heart rate and blood pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypothermia typically results in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure, not an increase.
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An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client's abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?
- A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
- D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.
A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Histamine blocker
- C. Bronchodilator
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.
The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient's provider to discuss an order for
- A. a low-potassium diet.
- B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
- D. salt substitutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.
A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?
- A. 3.0 mEq/L
- B. 3.8 mEq/L
- C. 4.2 mEq/L
- D. 5.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a patient admitted for a urinary tract infection. Which action is most important prior to administering the antibiotic?
- A. Administering a small test dose to determine if hypersensitivity exists
- B. Having epinephrine available in case of a severe hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Monitoring baseline vital signs, including temperature and blood pressure
- D. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action before administering an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection is to obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. This ensures the accurate identification of the causative organism and helps determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Administering a test dose to detect hypersensitivity is usually reserved for cases with a strong suspicion of allergy to a needed antibiotic. Keeping epinephrine available is important when there is a significant risk of a severe allergic reaction. Monitoring baseline vital signs is essential during antibiotic therapy but is not the top priority before administering the first dose.