Nokea
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hair loss
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.
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A client diagnosed with a sinus infection is prescribed ampicillin sodium. The practical nurse (PN) should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs?
- A. Rash
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A - Rash. Rash is the most common adverse side effect of all generations of penicillin, indicating an allergy to the medication. An allergic reaction could lead to anaphylactic shock, a severe and potentially life-threatening emergency. It is crucial for the client to inform the healthcare provider promptly if a rash develops after taking ampicillin sodium.
What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?
- A. Take the medication with an antacid instead of cranberry juice to reduce the anorexia.
- B. Continue to take the medication with a sip of cranberry juice, restricting fluids until the frequency is controlled.
- C. Continue to drink cranberry juice, but take the medicine on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
- D. Take the medication with a spoonful of ice cream or applesauce and avoid drinking cranberry juice.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.
A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?
- A. Notify the health care provider.
- B. Review the medication with the client.
- C. Advise the client to avoid grapefruit juice.
- D. Remind the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.
A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?
- A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
- B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
- C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
- D. Measure the client's intake and output
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.
A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Phenobarbital
- D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.