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A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.
A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?
- A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
- B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
- C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
- D. Measure the client's intake and output
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.
A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Liver toxicity
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Bone fractures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.