Nokea
A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
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What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
- A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
- B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
- C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
- D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.
A client with dysphagia is having difficulty swallowing medications. What is the nurse's best intervention?
- A. Crush the medications and mix them with applesauce.
- B. Encourage the client to drink water with each dose.
- C. Consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications.
- D. Offer the client soft foods to reduce difficulty swallowing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dysphagia experiencing difficulty swallowing medications is to consult with the healthcare provider about switching to liquid medications. Liquid medications are often easier to swallow and can reduce the risk of choking and aspiration in clients with dysphagia. Crushing medications can alter their effectiveness, encouraging the client to drink water may not be sufficient, and offering soft foods is not directly related to improving medication swallowing.