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A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Spider angiomas.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.
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When developing a program to support caregivers of elderly patients, which topic should be prioritized in the first session?
- A. Managing medication schedules
- B. Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout
- C. Effective communication with healthcare providers
- D. Navigating insurance and financial issues
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is the most critical topic to prioritize in the first session. Caregiver burnout can have detrimental effects on both the caregiver and the elderly patient's well-being. By addressing this issue early on, caregivers can learn to identify the signs of burnout, take necessary steps to prevent it, and ensure they can continue providing effective care for their loved ones. Managing medication schedules, effective communication with healthcare providers, and navigating insurance and financial issues are also important aspects to cover in the program. However, recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is essential for the overall health and quality of care provided by the caregivers.
During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty preparing meals. What should the nurse do first?
- A. suggest that the client use a meal delivery service
- B. assist the client in meal planning
- C. refer the client to a dietitian
- D. educate the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assisting the client in meal planning is the most appropriate initial action as it addresses the immediate issue of meal preparation. By helping the client plan meals according to their dietary needs and limitations, the nurse can support the client in maintaining a healthy diet despite limited mobility. While suggesting a meal delivery service (Choice A) may be a viable option, assisting in meal planning allows for more personalized and sustainable solutions. Referring the client to a dietitian (Choice C) may be necessary for specialized nutritional advice but is not the first step in addressing the immediate concern. Educating the client on easy-to-prepare healthy meals (Choice D) could be beneficial, but meal planning is a more comprehensive approach to ensure the client's dietary needs are met consistently.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Prepare the medication for administration.
- D. Administer the medication at the prescribed rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.
During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?
- A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
- B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
- C. Dullness over the lung fields.
- D. Increased tactile fremitus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.
The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?
- A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
- B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
- C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
- D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.