A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Dizziness
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.
You may also like to solve these questions
Phenytoin is prescribed for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which statement by the client needs to be clarified by the healthcare provider?
- A. I should notify the healthcare provider if the color of my urine turns pink.
- B. I should never stop taking this medication abruptly.
- C. I should monitor my glucose levels closely since I am diabetic.
- D. I should take the medicine with antacids if gastric upset occurs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antacids should not be taken with phenytoin as they can decrease its effects. Taking antacids with phenytoin is not recommended. Choice A is correct; pink discoloration of urine can occur with phenytoin use. Choice B is also correct; abruptly stopping phenytoin can lead to seizures. Choice C is correct; monitoring glucose levels is important as phenytoin can increase glucose levels. Therefore, the statement about using antacids with phenytoin needs clarification.
A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.
A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Headache
- C. Muscle cramping
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.
Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
- B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
- C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
- D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.