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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
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The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care to prevent joint contractures?
- A. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises.
- B. Use pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position.
- C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day.
- D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position is crucial in preventing joint contractures. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment of the joints and reduces the risk of contractures by preventing prolonged positioning that can lead to muscle shortening. Encouraging the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not be the most important intervention to prevent joint contractures. Placing the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day (Choice C) can be helpful for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing joint contractures. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side (Choice D) can aid in maintaining joint flexibility but may not be as crucial as using pillows to prevent joint contractures.
When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should:
- A. Grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression
- B. Check skin elasticity on the back of the hand
- C. Press on the skin over the abdomen
- D. Measure skin turgor on the lower leg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When assessing a client's skin turgor, a nurse should grasp a fold of the skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note the depth of the impression. This method is reliable for evaluating hydration status as it is less influenced by age-related skin changes or adipose tissue. Choice B, checking skin elasticity on the back of the hand, is not the preferred method for assessing skin turgor. Choice C, pressing on the skin over the abdomen, is not a standard location for assessing skin turgor. Choice D, measuring skin turgor on the lower leg, is not a recommended site for assessing skin turgor in clinical practice.
A nurse on a surgical unit is receiving a client who had abdominal surgery from the postanesthesia care unit. Which of the following assessments should the nurse make first?
- A. Airway
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Surgical site
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the airway first. Ensuring a clear and patent airway is crucial to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation post-surgery. Assessing the airway takes precedence over other assessments as a compromised airway can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress. Checking blood pressure, the surgical site, or level of consciousness are important but are secondary to ensuring the airway is clear and the client can breathe effectively.
When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?
- A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
- B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
- C. Pale nail beds in both hands
- D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.
A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "The client's age is not a factor in the measurement."
- B. "The scale measures six elements."
- C. "A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers."
- D. "Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.