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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
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A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?
- A. Oil retention
- B. Soapsuds
- C. Saline
- D. Hypertonic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.
A client is 6 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and is having difficulty voiding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void
- B. Provide the client with a bedpan while sitting upright
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and connect it to gravity drainage
- D. Encourage the client to limit fluid intake
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to allow the client to hear running water while attempting to void. This can help stimulate the urge to urinate in a non-invasive way, promoting natural voiding. Providing a bedpan while sitting upright is also a suitable approach to facilitate voiding by encouraging a more natural position. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be a last resort due to infection risks and discomfort associated with catheterization. Encouraging the client to limit fluid intake is not appropriate as hydration is crucial for overall health and can aid in promoting voiding. Therefore, the best initial intervention to promote voiding in this scenario is to allow the client to hear running water.
A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
- A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
- B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
- C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
- D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.
A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Akathisia
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
A nurse delegates a position change to a nursing assistive personnel. The nurse instructs the assistive personnel (AP) to place the patient in the lateral position. Which finding by the nurse indicates a correct outcome?
- A. Patient is lying on side.
- B. Patient is lying on back.
- C. Patient is lying semiprone.
- D. Patient is lying on abdomen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patient is lying on side.' In the side-lying (or lateral) position, the patient rests on the side with the major portion of body weight on the dependent hip and shoulder. Choice B, 'Patient is lying on back,' is incorrect as it describes a supine position. Choice C, 'Patient is lying semiprone,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is partially lying on the abdomen. Choice D, 'Patient is lying on abdomen,' is incorrect as it describes a prone position where the patient is lying face down.