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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
- D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.
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When teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of newly licensed nurses, what should the charge nurse instruct as the initial response in CPR?
- A. Confirm unresponsiveness
- B. Check for a pulse
- C. Begin chest compressions
- D. Call for emergency help
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response in CPR is to confirm unresponsiveness. This step is crucial to ensure that the person actually needs CPR before proceeding with further actions. Checking for unresponsiveness is essential to determine if the individual is in need of immediate assistance. Checking for a pulse or beginning chest compressions without confirming unresponsiveness could waste valuable time and potentially harm the individual. Calling for emergency help is important, but it should follow the confirmation of unresponsiveness to ensure timely activation of emergency services.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?
- A. When do you usually bathe, in the morning or evening?
- B. Do you prefer a bath or a shower?
- C. At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?
- D. Are you able to help with your hygiene care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
- B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
- C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
- D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.
To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?
- A. Case manager - responsible for overseeing a case load of clients but does not provide direct client care
- B. Client educator
- C. Client advocate
- D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.
A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Postural hypotension
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Dependent edema
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.