A client with a history of cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of dehydration. The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order;
- A. A glass of water every hour until hydrated
- B. Small frequent intake of juices, broth, or milk
- C. Short-term NG replacement of fluids and nutrients
- D. A rapid IV infusion of an electrolyte and glucose solution
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct:
1. Dehydration leads to electrolyte imbalances, which can exacerbate cardiac dysrhythmias.
2. Small frequent intake of fluids like juices, broth, or milk helps in gradual rehydration without overwhelming the cardiovascular system.
3. This approach allows for better absorption of fluids and nutrients, promoting hydration without causing sudden shifts in electrolyte levels.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Just drinking a glass of water every hour may not address electrolyte imbalances or provide adequate hydration for a client with cardiac dysrhythmias.
C: NG replacement may not be necessary if the client can tolerate oral intake, and it is more invasive than needed.
D: A rapid IV infusion may lead to sudden changes in electrolyte levels, potentially worsening the dysrhythmias.
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A 32 y.o. male patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre Syndrome. His legs are weak, and he is unable to walk without assistance. Which of the ff. is most likely responsible for this syndrome?
- A. Bacterial infection
- B. High-fat diet
- C. Heredity
- D. Autoimmune reaction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Autoimmune reaction. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. This is supported by the patient's presentation of weakness in the legs. Bacterial infection (A) can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome, but it is not the root cause. High-fat diet (B) and heredity (C) are not associated with the development of this syndrome. In summary, autoimmune reaction is the primary mechanism underlying Guillain-Barre Syndrome, resulting in the patient's muscle weakness and inability to walk.
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’s initial action in response to these observations?
- A. Proceed to the next patient’s room to make rounds.
- B. Determine the patient does not want any pain medicine.
- C. Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement.
- D. Administer the pain medication ordered for moderate to severe pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial action is to choose C: Ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement. This is important as the patient's non-verbal cues (facial grimacing) contradict their verbal pain report. By directly addressing the discrepancy, the nurse can gather more accurate information about the patient's pain experience and potentially identify any underlying issues causing the discrepancy.
Proceeding to the next patient's room (A) without addressing the discrepancy would neglect the patient's needs. Assuming the patient does not want pain medicine (B) based solely on the verbal report without further assessment is premature. Administering pain medication (D) without clarifying the situation may lead to inappropriate or ineffective treatment. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate initial action to ensure comprehensive and individualized patient care.
Which of the ff vitamins does a client lack if there is a problem with the absorption of calcium?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin B
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin D
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.
What instruction should the nurse give to then patient taking propan0lol (Inderal) for hypertension?
- A. Have potassium level checked
- B. Do not stop medication abruptly
- C. Report any changes in appetite
- D. Resume usual daily activities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not stop medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping propranolol can lead to rebound hypertension and potentially life-threatening complications. The nurse should emphasize the importance of gradual tapering under medical supervision to avoid adverse effects.
A: Having potassium levels checked is not directly related to propranolol use for hypertension management.
C: Changes in appetite are not specific to propranolol use and may not be a significant concern compared to abrupt cessation of the medication.
D: Resuming usual daily activities is important but not as crucial as the correct instruction to avoid abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
- A. Trousseau’s sign
- B. Hegar’s sign
- C. Homan’s sign
- D. Goodell’s sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.