A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Crackles in the lungs
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.
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In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Watery diarrhea
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Watery diarrhea. This finding is the most important to report as it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection, a severe side effect of antibiotic therapy. Clostridioides difficile infection can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are common side effects of linezolid but are not as critical as watery diarrhea in this context.
The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with congestive heart failure who reports a 3-pound weight gain in the last two days
- B. A client with a healing surgical wound
- C. A client requiring wound dressing change
- D. A client with stable vital signs needing medication administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled to receive a dose of methotrexate. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to review before administering the medication?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Kidney function tests
- D. Complete blood count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. Before administering methotrexate, it is crucial to review liver function tests due to the medication's potential hepatotoxic effects. Methotrexate can cause liver damage, so monitoring liver function is essential to prevent any serious complications. While white blood cell count, kidney function tests, and complete blood count are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the most critical before administering methotrexate.
A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
- C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
- D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.