A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.
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In assessing a client 48 hours following a fracture, the nurse observes ecchymosis at the fracture site and recognizes that hematoma formation at the bone fragment site has occurred. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the extent of the bruising in the medical record.
- B. Apply a cold compress to the area.
- C. Elevate the affected limb.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After observing ecchymosis at the fracture site, indicating hematoma formation, the nurse's priority is to document the extent of the bruising in the medical record. This documentation helps track the client's condition, aids in treatment planning, and serves as a baseline for monitoring changes. Applying a cold compress (choice B) may be contraindicated due to the risk of vasoconstriction and potential tissue damage. Elevating the affected limb (choice C) can be beneficial for reducing swelling in some cases, but documenting the bruising is the immediate concern. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this stage unless there are other concerning symptoms or complications beyond the hematoma formation.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.0
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?
- A. Addiction
- B. Phobia
- C. Compulsion
- D. Obsession
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's handwashing ritual is a compulsion, a repetitive behavior driven by the need to reduce anxiety associated with an obsession. In this case, the client's need to wash her hands excessively stems from an obsession with cleanliness, leading to the compulsive behavior of extensive handwashing. 'Addiction' (Choice A) involves a dependence on a substance or behavior, not related to this scenario. 'Phobia' (Choice B) is an intense fear of a specific object or situation, not applicable here. 'Obsession' (Choice D) refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, while the handwashing behavior in this case is the compulsive action taken to alleviate the anxiety related to the obsession.
The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?
- A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
- B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
- C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
- D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.
A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 5.0 mg/dL.
- B. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L.
- C. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
- D. Serum glucose 90 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and could indicate hypoparathyroidism, a possible complication after thyroidectomy. Low calcium levels can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D fall within the normal range and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
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