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A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged after angioplasty. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to the client?
- A. You should report any chest pain or discomfort to your health care provider.
- B. Avoid all physical activity for the next 2 weeks.
- C. Return to work immediately after discharge.
- D. Take aspirin only if you experience chest pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to reinforce is to 'Report any chest pain or discomfort to your health care provider.' This is crucial because chest pain post-angioplasty can indicate complications that need immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because returning to work immediately may not be advisable after angioplasty, as the client needs time to recover. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding all physical activity for 2 weeks may not be necessary; instead, gradual resumption of activities is usually recommended. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not just when chest pain occurs.
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The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?
- A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
- B. Improved tolerance to activity
- C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
- D. Stable blood pressure readings
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.
The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?
- A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
- B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
- D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
- B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
- C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
- D. Return to work only when medically cleared.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.
The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.