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A client with a history of Cushing’s syndrome is admitted with complaints of weight gain. The nurse should expect the client to have:
- A. Moon face
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hypotension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome causes excess cortisol, leading to moon face, central obesity, and weight gain.
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A client with a fractured femur is placed in skeletal traction. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. The client’s foot is cool to the touch.
- B. The client reports pain at the fracture site.
- C. The traction weights are resting on the floor.
- D. The client is performing active range of motion exercises.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cool foot indicates potential vascular compromise, a serious complication in skeletal traction requiring immediate intervention to prevent tissue damage. Pain is expected, weights on the floor disrupt traction but are less urgent, and exercises are encouraged if appropriate.
The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:
- A. Tumor size
- B. Axillary node status
- C. Client's previous history of disease
- D. Client's level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. The client's previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fed from an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis.
The nurse is observing a student gauss administering ear drops to a two-year-old. Which observation by the nurse would indicate correct technique?
- A. Holds the child's head up and extended
- B. Places the head in chin-tuck position
- C. Pulls the pinna down and back
- D. Irrigates the ear before administering medication
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulling the pinna down and back in children straightens the ear canal for proper ear drop administration. Head extension (A), chin-tuck (B), and irrigation (D) are incorrect.
A 17-year-old client has a T-4 spinal cord injury. At present, he is learning to catheterize himself. When he says, 'This is too much trouble. I would rather just have a Foley.' An appropriate response for the RN teaching him would be:
- A. I know. It is a lot to learn. In the long run, though, you will be able to reduce infections if you do an intermittent catheterization program.
- B. It is not too much trouble. This is the best way to manage urination.
- C. OK. I'll ask your physician if we can replace the Foley.
- D. You need to learn this because your doctor ordered it.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This response validates the client's feelings, provides education on reduced infection risk with intermittent catheterization, and encourages autonomy.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of Addison’s disease. Which finding indicates a potential adrenal crisis?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds
- C. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L
- D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adrenal crisis in Addison’s disease causes hypotension (e.g., 90/60 mmHg) due to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency, leading to shock. Weight gain, normal sodium, and normal heart rate are not indicative.