A client with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Stop the medication if heartburn resolves.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Omeprazole is most effective when taken before meals to reduce acid production.
You may also like to solve these questions
The charge nurse on the postpartum unit has received report about a client with a fetal demise who has just delivered and will be ready for transfer out of Labor and Delivery in about 2 hours. The client has asked her primary nurse if she can stay on the unit since she found support from the nursing staff there. What action should the charge nurse on the postpartum unit take?
- A. Request a room for this client on a unit without newborns.
- B. Ask the nurse in labor and delivery to discharge the mother as soon as she is physically able to leave.
- C. Talk to the mother first and decide on a location that is mutually agreeable.
- D. Admit the mother to a private room on the postpartum unit.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client on a unit without newborns minimizes emotional distress from being near other newborns after a fetal demise.
After teaching a mother about the neonate's positive Babinski's reflex, the nurse determines that the mother understands the instructions when she says that a positive Babinski's reflex indicates:
- A. Possible partial paralysis.
- B. Possible lower limb defect.
- C. Immature central nervous system.
- D. Possible injury to nerves that innervate the legs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive Babinski's reflex in neonates indicates an immature central nervous system, a normal finding that typically disappears by 1–2 years.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes the client's oxygen saturation is 88%. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow to 4 L/min.
- B. Notify the physician immediately.
- C. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises.
- D. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning to a high Fowler's position optimizes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, which is the first non-invasive intervention to try for a COPD client with low oxygen saturation.
The client prescribed phenelzine sulfate suddenly exhibits signs of hypertensive crisis. Which medication should the nurse plan to prepare?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Phentolamine
- C. Protamine sulfate
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The manifestations of hypertensive crisis include hypertension, occipital headache radiating frontally, neck stiffness and soreness, nausea, vomiting, sweating, fever and chills, clammy skin, dilated pupils, and palpitations. Tachycardia, bradycardia, and constricting chest pain may also be present. The antidote for hypertensive crisis is phentolamine and a dosage by intravenous injection is administered. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin. Calcium gluconate is used for magnesium overdose. Phytonadione is the antidote for warfarin overdose.
A client is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hypertension.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Polyuria.
- D. Hypoalbuminemia.
Correct Answer: A, D
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis can cause hypertension (due to fluid retention) and hypoalbuminemia (due to proteinuria).
Nokea