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A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
- B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- C. Check for jugular vein distention.
- D. Measure the client's urine output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.
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A client is admitted with acute pyelonephritis. Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Flank pain
- B. Pedal edema
- C. Hypotension
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flank pain is a classic symptom of acute pyelonephritis, which is a bacterial infection of the kidney. It occurs due to inflammation and irritation of the renal capsule, leading to pain in the flank region. Pedal edema (swelling in the feet and ankles) is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, not typically seen in acute pyelonephritis. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a systemic symptom that may occur with severe infections but is not a specific hallmark of pyelonephritis. Weight gain is also not a typical symptom of acute pyelonephritis; instead, patients may experience weight loss due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of infection.
A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?
- A. Allergic reaction
- B. Ringworm
- C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?
- A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
- B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
- C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
- D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.
During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?
- A. Touch the client's face with a cotton ball
- B. Apply a vibrating tuning fork to the client's forehead
- C. Have the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together
- D. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.
When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.