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A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
- D. Clonidine (Catapres)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.
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The healthcare provider is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Urine output is decreased.
- B. Thirst is decreased.
- C. Weight loss is observed.
- D. Urine specific gravity is within the normal range.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the body loses excessive amounts of water, leading to diluted urine with low specific gravity. Therefore, when the urine specific gravity is within the normal range, it indicates that the kidneys are properly concentrating urine, which is a sign of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, there is polyuria (excessive urination), persistent thirst due to fluid loss, and potential weight loss due to fluid imbalance, so these findings would not indicate effective treatment.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Nausea and vomiting.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign that can indicate heart failure or pulmonary edema, conditions that require immediate intervention in a client with a suspected myocardial infarction. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not necessitate immediate intervention compared to severe shortness of breath. Nausea and vomiting can be present in myocardial infarction but are not as urgent as shortness of breath. Diaphoresis, or sweating, is a common symptom of a myocardial infarction but may not be as immediately concerning as significant shortness of breath.
The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication.
- B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
- C. Double the dose.
- D. Increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.
The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?
- A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
- B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
- C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
- D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Epigastric tenderness.
- B. Bowel sounds are hypoactive.
- C. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain.
- D. Bowel sounds are hyperactive.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden, severe abdominal pain can indicate a perforated ulcer, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Epigastric tenderness (choice A) may be expected in a client with peptic ulcer disease but does not necessarily require immediate intervention. Hypoactive bowel sounds (choice B) are concerning but not as urgent as sudden, severe abdominal pain. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are more indicative of conditions like gastroenteritis rather than a perforated ulcer, making it a less critical finding compared to sudden, severe abdominal pain.