Nokea
A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
- A. Adrenal cortex
- B. Adrenal medulla
- C. Pancreas
- D. none of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.
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A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
- A. E-rosette immunofluorescence
- B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
- C. Quantification of T-lymphocytes (ELISA)
- D. Western blot test with ELISA
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
- A. Emergency Numbers
- B. Relaxation technique
- C. Drug Compliance
- D. Dietary prescription SITUATION: Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drug Compliance. After a CVA (stroke), it is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand and adhere to his prescribed medications. Medications help prevent further strokes and manage underlying conditions. Drug compliance ensures optimal treatment outcomes. Emergency Numbers (A) are important but not the priority post-stroke. Relaxation techniques (B) may be helpful but not as critical as medication adherence. Dietary prescription (D) is important but not as urgent as drug compliance in this scenario.
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
- A. Actinic
- B. Asymmetry
- C. Arcus
- D. Assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. Space the administration every 4 hours.
- B. Use the drug for a short time only
- C. Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid
- D. Decrease the piroxicam dosage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect.
Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect.
Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication.
Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.
The nurse is aware that multiple sclerosis is a progressive disease of the central nervous system characterized by:
- A. Axon degeneration
- B. Sclerosed patches of nervous system
- C. Demyelination of the brain and spinal cord
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a progressive disease affecting the central nervous system.
Step 2: Axon degeneration occurs in MS, leading to impaired nerve signal transmission.
Step 3: MS is characterized by sclerosed patches, or plaques, in the nervous system.
Step 4: Demyelination of the brain and spinal cord is a hallmark feature of MS.
Step 5: Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they accurately describe key features of MS.