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A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
- A. Adrenal cortex
- B. Adrenal medulla
- C. Pancreas
- D. none of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.
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A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?
- A. Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding
- B. Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration
- C. Counselling on alternate therapies
- D. Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches.
A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation.
B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention.
D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
- A. Actinic
- B. Asymmetry
- C. Arcus
- D. Assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetry. In the ABCD method for assessing skin lesions, A stands for asymmetry, which refers to whether one half of the lesion looks different from the other half. This is important because asymmetrical lesions are more likely to be cancerous. Actinic (choice A) refers to sun damage, Arcus (choice C) refers to a condition affecting the eyes, and Assessment (choice D) is a general term that does not specifically relate to the characteristics of skin lesions.
Which of the ff. safety instructions should the nurse give a patient who has temporarily dilated pupils?
- A. Keep eyes closed
- B. Wear sunglasses
- C. Do not drive for 8 hours
- D. Avoid caffeinated beverages
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Wear sunglasses. Dilated pupils are sensitive to light, so wearing sunglasses can help protect the eyes from excessive light exposure. Keeping the eyes closed (A) may provide temporary relief but does not protect the eyes from light. Avoiding driving for 8 hours (C) is important after certain eye procedures but not specifically related to dilated pupils. Avoiding caffeinated beverages (D) is unrelated to pupil dilation.
Which of the ff. is the best explanation of emphysema for a newly diagnosed patient?
- A. “You have inflamed bronchioles, which causes a lot of secretions.”
- B. “Your lungs have lost some of their elasticity, and air gets trapped.”
- C. “The blood supply to your lungs is damaged, so you can’t absorb oxygen.”
- D. “You have large dilated sacs of sputum in your lungs.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the alveoli walls, leading to a loss of elasticity in the lungs. This results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it difficult to exhale properly.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Inflamed bronchioles causing secretions describe bronchitis, not emphysema.
C: Damage to the blood supply isn't a primary feature of emphysema; it's more about lung tissue destruction.
D: Large dilated sacs of sputum in the lungs is not an accurate description of emphysema; it's more related to bronchiectasis.
A client was brought to the school clinic wuth severe, constant, localized abdominal pain. Abdominal muscles are rigid, and rebound tenderness is present. Peritonitis is suspected. The client is hypotensive and tachycardic. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate to the client’s signs/symptoms is:
- A. fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume
- B. altered thought process related to toxic effects of elevated ammonia levels
- C. abdominal pain related to increased intestinal peristalsis
- D. altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to malabsorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.