A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rigid, board-like abdomen. This finding suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease, requiring immediate medical intervention. A: Active bowel sounds are expected. B: Blood pressure is within normal range. D: Heart rate is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. In summary, a rigid abdomen indicates peritonitis and requires urgent attention compared to the other choices.
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The charge nurse observes that a client with a nasogastric tube on low intermittent suction is drinking a glass of water immediately after the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) left the room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP.
- B. Discuss the incident with the UAP at the end of the day.
- C. Write an incident report and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Remind the client of the potential for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the glass of water and speak to the UAP. The rationale is as follows: 1) Drinking water with low intermittent suction can cause complications. 2) Immediate action is necessary to prevent harm. 3) Speaking to the UAP clarifies the situation and provides education. 4) Removing the glass of water ensures the client's safety.
Incorrect choices:
B: Discussing at the end of the day delays action and puts the client at risk.
C: Writing an incident report is important, but immediate intervention is needed first.
D: Reminding the client of electrolyte imbalance does not address the current issue of drinking water with a nasogastric tube.
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day. This instruction is crucial for a client with heart failure taking furosemide as sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which can worsen heart failure. Monitoring weight daily can help detect early signs of fluid overload.
A: Taking the medication before bedtime is not a critical instruction for furosemide as it is usually taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
C: Increasing intake of high-sodium foods contradicts the purpose of furosemide, which is a diuretic used to reduce fluid retention by promoting diuresis.
D: Limiting fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can be harmful for a client with heart failure.
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection in your thigh.
- B. Do not expel the air bubble from the syringe before injection.
- C. Massage the injection site after administration.
- D. Alternate the injection site between the arms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because expelling the air bubble from the syringe before injection helps ensure accurate dosage delivery and prevents air from being injected into the patient. Administering the injection in the thigh (A) is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically given in the abdomen. Massaging the injection site (C) can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Alternating injection sites between arms (D) is not relevant as enoxaparin is usually given in the abdomen.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect.
2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia.
3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects.
4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin.
- Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively.
- Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.