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A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Reduces gastric acid production
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Increases gastric mucus production
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
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A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin
- B. Instruct the client about the effects of the medication
- C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack
- D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.
The nurse observes that a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing. What is the appropriate nursing action?
- A. Apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Clean the wound with sterile saline
- C. Cover the wound with a sterile dressing
- D. Notify the surgeon immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action when a post-operative client's surgical wound has reddened edges and is oozing is to notify the surgeon immediately. Reddened, oozing wound edges can indicate an infection that requires prompt evaluation and intervention by the surgical team. Applying an antibiotic ointment (Choice A) without proper assessment and guidance can be inappropriate. Cleaning the wound with sterile saline (Choice B) and covering it with a sterile dressing (Choice C) may not address the potential infection adequately, and the client may require more specialized care that the surgeon can provide.
A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
The nurse is caring for a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Slow down the rate of the transfusion
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Stop the transfusion immediately
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chills and back pain are signs of a possible transfusion reaction, which can indicate severe complications like a hemolytic reaction or sepsis. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Slowing the rate of the transfusion or administering an antipyretic will not address the underlying cause of the reaction and could potentially worsen the client's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after ensuring the client's immediate safety by stopping the transfusion.
Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.