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A client with a history of seizures is being discharged with a prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Take the medication with meals
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- C. Limit sodium intake
- D. Take the medication at bedtime
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Phenytoin interacts with alcohol, increasing the risk of side effects such as dizziness and drowsiness. Alcohol can also reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Taking the medication with meals (choice A) may help reduce gastrointestinal upset but does not address the alcohol interaction. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary for all clients and does not address the alcohol interaction.
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When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour?
- A. 5
- B. 10
- C. 15
- D. 20
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 5 ml/hour. To calculate the infusion rate, you need to divide the total amount infused by the total time in hours. Given contractions every 2-3 minutes, which is equivalent to 20-30 contractions per hour, the pump should infuse at 5 ml/hour to ensure proper medication delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the frequency of contractions and may lead to under or overmedication.
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
- B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
- C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
- D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating. This is the correct action because azithromycin is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, but if the client has already eaten, it is recommended to wait at least 2 hours after a meal before taking it. This ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the timing issue of taking azithromycin on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose of an antibiotic can lead to treatment failure. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of azithromycin and should not be taken together.
The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
- A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
- B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
- C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
- D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus. This client should be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit because lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect pregnancy outcomes. The antepartal unit is better equipped to provide specialized care for high-risk pregnancies, which would be necessary for a client with lupus.
A: A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B - Hepatitis B does not directly impact pregnancy outcomes and does not require transfer to the antepartal unit.
C: A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella - Rubella is a viral infection that can be harmful during pregnancy, but the client should be managed in a different unit specialized in infectious diseases.
D: A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva - Herpes lesions of the vulva can be managed in the medical-surgical unit and do not necessarily require transfer to the antepartal unit unless there
Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?
- A. Wear long-sleeved clothing when outdoors
- B. Report the onset of sore throat
- C. Eat plenty of potassium-rich food
- D. Change the position slowly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Change the position slowly. Elderly clients taking both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers are at risk for orthostatic hypotension. Instructing them to change positions slowly helps prevent sudden drops in blood pressure and dizziness upon standing up.
A: Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors is not directly related to the medications mentioned.
B: Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects of medications but not specific to the combination of ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers.
C: Eating plenty of potassium-rich foods is not typically contraindicated for clients taking ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, but it is not the most essential instruction compared to preventing orthostatic hypotension.
In summary, changing position slowly is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is a common side effect of these medications in elderly clients.
A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator. This is the appropriate action for a college student with symptoms of a vaginal infection with a 'cottage cheese' appearance discharge, which is indicative of a yeast infection (most likely caused by Candida). Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida, hence addressing the root cause of the infection. It is essential to start with the treatment first to alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying infection.
C: Performing a glucose measurement is not necessary at this stage as the symptoms suggest a yeast infection, not diabetes.
D: Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this case as the symptoms are indicative of a yeast infection, not an STD.