Nokea
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
- B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
- C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
- D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.
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A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Palpate for abdominal distention
- B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
- C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
- D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.
A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
- A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
- B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
- C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
- D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Obtain oxygen saturation level.
- B. Encourage incentive spirometry.
- C. Assess lower extremity circulation
- D. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.
The nurse is recording a history for a child who has been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What is a finding that is characteristic of this disorder?
- A. Morning headaches
- B. Pain for 3 consecutive months
- C. Febrile episodes in the late afternoon
- D. Diaphoresis when attacks occur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain for 3 consecutive months. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is characterized by abdominal pain that occurs at least once per week for at least 2 months before diagnosis. Choosing option A is incorrect since morning headaches are not a common characteristic of RAP. Option C is incorrect because febrile episodes in the late afternoon are not typically associated with RAP. Option D is incorrect as diaphoresis (excessive sweating) when attacks occur is not a common finding in RAP.