Nokea
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
- B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
- C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
- D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.
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A client with hyperkalemia is being treated in the emergency department. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Potassium chloride
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Magnesium sulfate
- D. Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, where potassium levels are elevated, calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the myocardial cell membrane and protect the heart from potential arrhythmias. Potassium chloride (choice A) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Magnesium sulfate (choice C) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Sodium bicarbonate (choice D) is used in metabolic acidosis, not specifically for hyperkalemia.
A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 100 mL/hour.
- B. 125 mL/hour.
- C. 133 mL/hour.
- D. 150 mL/hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Improved oxygen saturation
- D. Complaints of dry mouth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.
In a disaster area, a nurse assesses an adult male with partial-thickness burns on his lower legs, approximately 10% of his lower body. Which color of triage tag should the nurse place on this client?
- A. Yellow.
- B. Black.
- C. Red.
- D. Green.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A yellow triage tag should be placed on the client with partial-thickness burns covering 10% of his lower body. Yellow tags indicate delayed treatment, suitable for serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening. Black tags are used for deceased individuals, red tags for immediate treatment of life-threatening injuries, and green tags for minor injuries.
What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
- A. Poor cough and gag reflex
- B. The gestational age at birth
- C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
- D. The sex of the infant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.