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A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.
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The nurse is teaching a client with glomerulonephritis about self-care. Which dietary recommendations should the nurse encourage the client to follow?
- A. Increase intake of high-fiber foods, such as bran cereal
- B. Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods.
- C. Limit oral fluid intake to 500ml per day
- D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas and cantaloupe.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restrict protein intake by limiting meats and other high-protein foods. In glomerulonephritis, reducing protein intake helps to lower the workload on the kidneys, as excessive protein can lead to increased production of waste products that the kidneys must filter. This restriction can help prevent further damage to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Increasing high-fiber foods like bran cereal is beneficial for other conditions but not specific to glomerulonephritis. C) Limiting oral fluid intake to 500ml per day is not appropriate as fluid restrictions are usually individualized based on the client's condition and kidney function. D) Increasing potassium-rich foods like bananas and cantaloupe may not be suitable for all clients with glomerulonephritis, as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease and individual needs may vary.
While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
- B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
- C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
- D. Palpate the client's artery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.
Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?
- A. Cognitive impairment
- B. Altered growth and development
- C. Faulty dentition
- D. Physical abilities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.
The nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed pain medication.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Place an eye patch over the affected eye.
- D. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B). Sudden severe eye pain and blurred vision can indicate acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent vision loss. Administering pain medication (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Placing an eye patch (Choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the exact cause of the symptoms. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) is not the immediate priority in this situation where urgent medical attention is needed.
The family of a newly admitted child with cystic fibrosis is educated by the nurse that the treatment will be centered on what therapy?
- A. Chest physiotherapy
- B. Mucus-drying agents
- C. Prevention of diarrhea
- D. Insulin therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest physiotherapy. In cystic fibrosis, chest physiotherapy and aerosol medications are fundamental components of treatment to help clear mucus from the lungs, reduce the risk of infections, and improve breathing. Mucus-drying agents (Choice B) are not typically used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Prevention of diarrhea (Choice C) is not a primary focus in the treatment of cystic fibrosis. Insulin therapy (Choice D) is not relevant to cystic fibrosis, as it is a treatment for diabetes.