Nokea
A client with a known history of panic disorder comes to the emergency department and states to the nurse, 'Please help me. I think I'm having a heart attack.' What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess the client's vital signs.
- B. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
- C. Identify the manifestations related to the panic disorder.
- D. Determine what the client's activity involved when the pain started.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with a panic disorder can experience acute physical symptoms, such as chest pain and palpitations. The priority is to assess the client's physical condition to rule out a physiological disorder for these signs and symptoms. Although options 2, 3, and 4 may be appropriate at some point in the care of the client, they are not the priority.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving blood transfusion therapy. Which clinical manifestations should alert the nurse to a hemolytic transfusion reaction? Select all that apply.
- A. Headache
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Apprehension
- E. Distended neck veins
- F. A sense of impending doom
Correct Answer: A,B,D,F
Rationale: Hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by blood type or Rh incompatibility. When blood containing antigens different from the client's own antigens is infused, antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the client's blood. These complexes destroy the transfused cells and start inflammatory responses in the client's blood vessel walls and organs. The reaction may include fever and chills or may be life-threatening with disseminated intravascular coagulation and circulatory collapse. Other manifestations include headache, tachycardia, apprehension, a sense of impending doom, chest pain, low back pain, tachypnea, hypotension, and hemoglobinuria. The onset may be immediate or may not occur until subsequent units have been transfused. Distended neck veins are characteristics of circulatory overload.
The nurse is assisting a client diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy to fill out the dietary menu. The nurse advises the client to avoid which entree item?
- A. Tomato soup
- B. Fresh fruit plate
- C. Vegetable lasagna
- D. Ground beef patty
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with hepatic encephalopathy have impaired ability to convert ammonia to urea and must limit intake of protein and ammonia-containing foods in the diet. The client should avoid foods such as chicken, beef, ham, cheese, milk, peanut butter, and gelatin. The food items in options 1, 2, and 3 are acceptable to eat.
The nurse managing a client's post-supratentorial craniotomy care should assure that the client is maintained in which position?
- A. Prone
- B. Supine
- C. Semi-Fowler's
- D. Dorsal recumbent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following a supratentorial craniotomy, the client should be maintained in a semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees) to promote venous drainage from the brain, reduce intracranial pressure, and prevent swelling at the surgical site. The prone position could increase pressure on the surgical site and impede breathing. The supine position may increase intracranial pressure due to poor venous drainage. The dorsal recumbent position, while flat with knees flexed, does not provide the elevation needed to reduce intracranial pressure effectively.
The nurse creates a postoperative plan of care for a client undergoing an arthroscopy. The nurse should include which priority action in the plan?
- A. Monitor intake and output.
- B. Assess the tissue at the surgical site.
- C. Monitor the area for numbness or tingling.
- D. Assess the complete blood cell count results.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Arthroscopy provides an endoscopic examination of the joint and is used to diagnose and treat acute and chronic disorders of the joint. The priority nursing action is to monitor the affected area for numbness or tingling, which could indicate neurovascular compromise.
The nurse is assessing a 3-day-old preterm neonate with a diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which assessment finding indicates that the neonate's respiratory condition is improving?
- A. Edema of the hands and feet
- B. Urine output of 3 mL/kg/hour
- C. Presence of a systolic murmur
- D. Respiratory rate between 60 and 70 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RDS is a serious lung disorder caused by immaturity and the inability to produce surfactant, resulting in hypoxia and acidosis. Lung fluid, which occurs in RDS, moves from the lungs into the bloodstream as the condition improves and the alveoli open. This extra fluid circulates to the kidneys, which results in increased voiding. Therefore, normal urination is an early sign that the neonate's respiratory condition is improving (normal urinary output is 2 to 5 mL/kg/hour). Edema of the hands and feet occurs within the first 24 hours after the development of RDS as a result of low protein concentrations, a decrease in colloidal osmotic pressure, and transudation of fluid from the vascular system to the tissues. Systolic murmurs usually indicate the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus, which is a common complication of RDS. Respiratory rates above 60 are indicative of tachypnea, which is a sign of respiratory distress.