A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
- A. Administer a cleansing enema.
- B. Initiate a low-fiber diet.
- C. Apply moist heat to the abdomen.
- D. Provide a clear liquid diet.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
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A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will avoid eating foods that contain tyramine.''
- B. ''I should increase my salt intake while taking this medication.''
- C. ''I should drink at least 2 liters of water each day while taking this medication.''
- D. ''I should avoid consuming caffeinated beverages while taking this medication.''
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Drinking at least 2 liters of water daily is crucial for clients taking lithium to prevent dehydration and lithium toxicity. Lithium is a salt, so it's important for clients to maintain adequate hydration. Option A is incorrect because lithium does not interact with tyramine-containing foods. Option B is incorrect because increasing salt intake is not necessary and can actually exacerbate lithium toxicity. Option D is incorrect because avoiding caffeinated beverages is not a priority teaching point for clients taking lithium.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
- A. aPTT 75 seconds.
- B. INR 1.2.
- C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about managing blood pressure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Increase your intake of red meat to manage your blood pressure.
- B. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement is C: 'Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.' Regular exercise is essential in managing blood pressure as it helps improve cardiovascular health. Choice A is incorrect as increasing red meat intake can be detrimental due to its high saturated fat content, which can negatively impact blood pressure. Choice B is not directly related to managing blood pressure unless the medication interacts negatively with alcohol. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 3 liters per day, is not a general recommendation for managing blood pressure unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.
A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
- B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
- C. Limit IV exposure to light.
- D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.
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