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A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?
- A. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes
- B. Encouraging a high-protein diet
- C. Maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids
- D. Providing a low-fat diet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids (Choice C). This is because pancreatitis causes inflammation of the pancreas, leading to digestive enzyme release and auto-digestion of pancreatic tissue. By keeping the client NPO, it helps rest the pancreas and decrease enzyme secretion, which can reduce further damage. Administering IV fluids is crucial to maintain hydration and replace lost fluids due to vomiting or decreased oral intake. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they focus on dietary interventions such as oral pancreatic enzymes, high-protein, or low-fat diet, which are not appropriate as initial priorities in the acute phase of pancreatitis.
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The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red man syndrome. This is a severe adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. It can progress rapidly to anaphylaxis. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within normal range, mild itching at the IV site is common and can be managed topically, and nausea and vomiting are common side effects of vancomycin but are not life-threatening compared to Red man syndrome.
A client's health history is suggestive of inflammatory bowel disease. Which of the following would suggest Crohn disease, rather than ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the client's signs and symptoms?
- A. A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions
- B. Severe diarrhea
- C. An absence of blood in stool
- D. Involvement of the rectal mucosa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An absence of blood in stool. This suggests Crohn's disease over ulcerative colitis because Crohn's can involve any part of the GI tract and may not always present with blood in stool, in contrast to ulcerative colitis which typically involves the rectum and almost always presents with blood in stool due to continuous inflammation in the colon. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis, which typically presents with a pattern of exacerbations and remissions, severe diarrhea, and rectal mucosal involvement.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 tablets. To administer 0.25 mg of digoxin daily using 0.125 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet is 0.125 mg, so 2 tablets will equal 0.25 mg, which is the required dose. The other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would only provide 0.125 mg (half the required dose), administering 3 tablets would provide 0.375 mg (exceeding the required dose), and administering 4 tablets would provide 0.5 mg (double the required dose). Thus, the correct answer is to administer 2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 0.25 mg dose.
A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Hypothyroidism. High TSH and low free T4 levels indicate primary hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH is a compensatory response by the pituitary gland to stimulate the thyroid to produce more thyroid hormones, but the thyroid gland is unable to do so effectively, resulting in low free T4 levels. Fatigue, weight gain, and constipation are classic symptoms of hypothyroidism.
- B: Hyperthyroidism is characterized by low TSH and high free T4 levels, opposite of the lab results presented.
- C: Thyroiditis may initially present with high or low thyroid hormone levels, but the combination of high TSH and low free T4 levels is more indicative of hypothyroidism.
- D: Thyroid cancer typically does not cause abnormal thyroid hormone levels; it is more commonly associated with thyroid nodules or masses.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Liver cirrhosis
- B. Renal failure
- C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver cirrhosis. Chronic alcohol abuse is a leading cause of liver cirrhosis due to the toxic effects of alcohol on the liver over time. Alcohol metabolism leads to liver inflammation, scarring, and ultimately cirrhosis. Renal failure (B) is not directly linked to alcohol abuse but can occur in severe cases. COPD (C) is primarily caused by smoking, not alcohol abuse. Peptic ulcer disease (D) can be exacerbated by alcohol but is not directly caused by chronic alcohol abuse. Therefore, the most significant risk for a client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is developing liver cirrhosis.