Nokea
A client with advanced Alzheimer’s disease has been prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). What clinical manifestation suggests that the client is experiencing side effects from this medication?
- A. Cough
- B. Tremors
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Pitting edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects like tremors. Cough (A), diarrhea (C), and pitting edema (D) are not typical side effects of haloperidol.
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A 52-year-old client who underwent an exploratory laparotomy for a bowel obstruction begins to complain of hunger on the third postoperative day. His nasogastric (NG) tube was removed this morning, and he has an IV of D5W with 0.45% normal saline running at 125 mL/hr. He asks when he can get rid of his IV and start eating. The nurse recognizes that he will be able to begin taking oral fluids and nourishment when:
- A. It is determined that he has no signs of wound infection
- B. He is able to eat a full meal without evidence of nausea or vomiting
- C. The nurse can detect bowel sounds in all four quadrants
- D. His blood pressure returns to its preoperative baseline level or greater
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The absence of wound infection is related to his surgical wound and not to postoperative GI functioning and return of peristalsis. Routine postoperative protocol involves detection of bowel sounds and return of peristalsis before introduction of clear liquids, followed by progression of full liquids and a regular diet versus a full regular meal first. Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction is to assess for the return of bowel sounds within 72 hours after major surgery, because that is when bowel sounds normally return. If unable to detect bowel sounds, the surgeon should be notified immediately and have the client remain NPO. Routine postoperative protocol for bowel obstruction and other major surgeries involves frequent monitoring of vital signs in the immediate postoperative period (in recovery room) and then every 4 hours, or more frequently if the client is unstable, on the nursing unit. This includes assessing for signs of hypovolemic shock. Vital signs usually stabilize within the first 24 hours postoperatively.
A registered nurse is trying to determine the appropriate care that she should provide for her obstetrical clients. Which of the following documents is considered the legal standard of practice?
- A. State nursing practice act
- B. AWHONN Standards for the Nursing Care of Women and Newborns
- C. American Nurses' Association Standards of Maternal-Child Health Nursing
- D. International Council of Nurses' Code
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The state nursing practice act determines the standard of care for the professional nurse. AWHONN Standards are published as recommendations and guidelines for maternal-newborn nursing. American Nurses' Association Standards are published as recommendations and guidelines for maternal-child health nursing. The International Council of Nurses' Code emphasizes the nurse's obligations to the client rather than to the physician. It is published as recommendations and guidelines by the international organization for professional nursing.
Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is:
- A. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL
- B. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
- C. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL
- D. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended range is 70-120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus.
The nurse is teaching a client with a history of chronic sinusitis about self-care. The nurse should tell the client to:
- A. Use a humidifier
- B. Avoid hydration
- C. Use decongestants excessively
- D. Sleep with the head lowered
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A humidifier keeps nasal passages moist, reducing irritation and promoting drainage in chronic sinusitis.
The physician has ordered Dilantin (phenytoin) 100 mg intravenously for a client with generalized tonic clonic seizures. The nurse should administer the medication:
- A. Rapidly with an IV push
- B. With IV dextrose
- C. Slowly over 2-3 minutes
- D. Through a small vein
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin must be administered slowly (over 2-3 minutes) to prevent cardiovascular complications like hypotension or arrhythmias. It should not be mixed with dextrose or given rapidly.