A client with an aplastic sickle cell crisis is receiving a blood transfusion and begins to complain of 'feeling hot.' Almost immediately, the client begins to wheeze. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Stop the blood infusion
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Take/record vital signs
- D. Send blood samples to lab
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stop the blood infusion. If a reaction of any type is suspected during administration of blood products, stop the infusion immediately, keep the line open with saline, notify the health care provider, monitor vital signs and other changes, and then send a blood sample to the lab.
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An adult is receiving gentamicin IV q8h. Which laboratory tests does the nurse expect that the client will have done regularly?
- A. CBC and hemoglobin
- B. BUN and serum creatinine
- C. SGOT and SGPT
- D. Urine and blood cultures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BUN and serum creatinine are tests of renal function. Gentamicin is nephrotoxic. All persons receiving gentamicin should have these tests done regularly to assess for toxicity.
A 17-year-old client has been recently diagnosed as having diabetes mellitus Type 1. Insulin is prescribed. The client asks why insulin can't be taken by mouth. What is the best answer for the nurse to give?
- A. Insulin is irritating to the stomach.
- B. Oral insulin is too rapidly absorbed.
- C. Gastric juices destroy insulin.
- D. You can take it by mouth when the acute phase is over.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin is a protein destroyed by gastric enzymes, requiring injection for effective delivery.
The 68-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of slurred speech, right-sided weakness, and ataxia. The emergency department physician ordered thrombolytic therapy for the client. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer thrombolytic therapy via protocol.
- B. Send the client for a STAT CT of the head.
- C. Arrange for admission to the intensive care department.
- D. Check to determine if the client is cross sensitive to the thrombolytic.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A STAT head CT rules out hemorrhagic stroke, a contraindication for thrombolytics, and is the first step per stroke guidelines.
A woman who is receiving cancer chemotherapy exhibits all of the following. Which is most indicative of bone marrow depression?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Petechiae
- C. Stomatitis
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Petechiae indicate low platelets, a sign of bone marrow depression, a common chemotherapy side effect.
The elderly client is in a long-term care facility. If the client does not have a daily bowel movement in the morning, he requests a cathartic, bisacodyl (Dulcolax). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Ensure the client gets a cathartic daily.
- B. Discuss the complications of a daily cathartic.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fiber in the diet.
- D. Refuse to administer the medication to the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily cathartics risk dependence and electrolyte imbalance; discussing complications educates and promotes safer alternatives like fiber.
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