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A client with bipolar disorder is started on a regimen of valproic acid (Depakote). Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum sodium levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to liver damage. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any early signs of liver impairment. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not the most important to monitor in this case. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) and serum sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by valproic acid and are not the priority for monitoring in a client taking this medication.
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A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?
- A. Mood swings.
- B. Extreme sadness.
- C. Manipulative behavior.
- D. Flat affect.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.
During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.
A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
- B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
- C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
- D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.
During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
- B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
- C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
- D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
A client, who is on a 30-day commitment to a drug rehabilitation unit, asks the nurse if he can go for a walk on the grounds of the treatment center. When he is told that his privileges do not include walking on the grounds, the client becomes verbally abusive. Which approach will the nurse take?
- A. Call a staff member to escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client to talk to his healthcare provider about his privileges.
- C. Remind the client of the unit rules.
- D. Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: (C) is the correct approach in this situation as it reinforces unit rules, setting clear boundaries and expectations. By reminding the client of the unit rules, the nurse is helping to maintain a safe and structured environment within the drug rehabilitation unit. (A) is unnecessary since the client's behavior does not warrant immediate physical intervention. (B) is not ideal because the client's privileges have already been explained, and suggesting he speak to his healthcare provider may not address the immediate issue. (D) is not appropriate as addressing inappropriate behavior is essential in a therapeutic setting.